UPSC Prelims 2017 Answer Key and UPSC Prelims Cut Off 2017 is prepared by the team NeoStencil in collaboration with top Institutes of IAS Coaching in Delhi. The UPSC Prelims Exam 2017 was conducted on June 18th 2017 for 980 vacancies and keeping the requirements of candidates in mind, the prelims answer key will help determine UPSC Prelims Cut Off 2017 based on a large number of students and experienced teachers from Delhi’s top IAS coaching institutes. NeoStencil is the first to launch the UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2017 with explanations and sources as soon as the exam ends, for the benefit of the candidates who would like to get a fair idea of how they performed and check their answers.
Overview: UPSC has surprised once again and maintains its unpredictable nature. This UPSC prelims exam 2017 was no exception. In addition to the regular facts based questions (seen for the last two years), there were quite a few analytical questions as well this time.
As usual most of the questions were current affairs oriented. Alongside, this year UPSC has given more importance to polity questions. There also seems to be additional focus on climate and environment related issues in the exam.
Geography this time took a backseat with only a handful of questions. Most of the economy questions were current affairs based.
Detailed question by question view & their sources follows.
Next 25 questions are:
Set B: 1-25, Set A: 26-50, Set C: 76-100, Set D: 51-75
1) The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to
(a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.
(b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State of India.
(c) Impose censorship on national press.
(d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States
2) The term ‘Domestic Contest Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to
(a) Developing solar power production in our country
(b) Granting licenses to foreign T.V channels in our country
(c) Exporting our food products to other countries
(d) Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country
3) Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS) ?
(a) Resident Indian citizens only
(b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
(c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
(d) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004.
5) With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
6) Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
7) Consider the following statements:
8) What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
9) With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
10) According to the Wildlife [Protection] Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
(b) 2 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
11) Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
12) Consider the following pairs:
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 , 2 and 3
13) Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief
14) With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements:
15) What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
16) With reference to ‘Asia-Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development [APMCHUD], consider the following statements:
17) Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
(b) the methods for strengthening executing leadership
(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
(d) a band of dedicated party workers.
18) Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘United Payments Interface [UPI]?
(a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.
(b) Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades
(c) FDI inflows will drastically increase.
(d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.
19) The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’ ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of
(a) Observation and understanding of the Universe
(b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
(c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
(d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth.
20) With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’ often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?
21) The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
(a) the executive and legislature work independently
(b) It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without the election.
Source: Indian Polity – Laxmikanth
22) In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties
(c) Rights, not Duties are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen
(d) Duties, not Rights are important for the stability of the State.
23) The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties
24) If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?
25) The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
(a) 1 only
Next 25 questions are:
Set B: 26-50, Set A: 1-25, Set C: 51-75, Set D: 76-100
26) With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statement :
27) With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
28) ‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to
(a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.
(b) Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmers.
(c) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.
(d) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.
29) From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(b) Nallamala Forest
(c) Nagarhole National Park
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
30) One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
31) Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce [TRAFFIC]:
32) Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries.
(c) Right to work , education and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
33) Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens
34) Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) UN Human Rights Council
(c) UN Women
(d) World Health Organization
35) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
36) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committed [MPC]?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b) 1 and 2 only
37) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 only
38) Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?
39) In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?
40) The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for
(a) the participation of workers in the management of industries.
(b) arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.
(c) an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute
(d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes
41) Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
(b) Democratic decentralisation
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy
42) Consider the following statements :
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
43) The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to
44) At one of the places in India , if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at
45) With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 [PBPT Act]’ consider the following statements :
46) Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?
47) It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitations[s] of developing countries in promoting this industry?
48) Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’?
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
49) Consider the following statements :
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
50) In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon acquestration?
(b) 3 only
Next 25 questions are:
Set B: 51-75, Set A: 76-100, Set C: 26-50, Set D: 1-25
51) Consider the following statements:
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate the must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provision laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha , the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Oppostion.
Source: Indian Polity -Laxmikanth (22.8)
52) Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?
1. Share of agriculture in GDP increases enormously.
2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
3. FDI inflows increased.
4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
53) What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?
(a) Production of biolarvicides
(b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
(c) Reproduction cloning of animals
(d) Production of organisms free of diseases
54) Consider the following statements :
1. National Payments Corporation of India NPCD helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.
2. NPCI has launched RuPay a card payment scheme.
55) The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
(d) Security of National Highways
56) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax [GST]?
1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.
57) ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement [BTIA]’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and
(a) European Union
(b) Gulf Cooperation Council
(c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organizaton
58) Consider the following statements :
1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement [TFA] of WTO.
2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
3. TFA came into force in January 2016.
59) What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?
(a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.
(b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.
60) In India, it is legally mandatory , for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?
1. Service providers
2. Data centres
3. Body corporate
61) Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right
62) What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna [eLISA]’ project?
(a) To detect neutrinos
(b) To detect gravitational waves
(c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system
(d) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems
63) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’ ?
1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India.
2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.
(a) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
64) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’?
(a) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government’s education system and local communities.
(b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.
(c) Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power.
(d) Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.
65) Consider the following statements :
1. The Election Commission of India is a five member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits /megers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(d) 3 only
Source: Indian Polity-Laxmikanth ( 38.4 )
66) In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife [Protection] Act, 1972, what does it imply?
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India
(d) Both [b] and [c] stated above are correct in this context.
67) In India, Judicial Review implies
(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
68) With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:
1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
2. Quit India Movement launched
3. Second Round Table Conference
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
Source: Spectrum History
69) Consider the following statements :
1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
Source: Economic Survey 2017
70) Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?
(a) Corbett National Park
(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Sariska National Park
71) Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly.
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.
3. Dissolution of the Local bodies.
72) Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
73) Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?
(d) Sri Lanka
74) Out of the following statements , choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
75) Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
75. Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian federalism?
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
Next 25 questions are:
Set B: 76-100, Set A: 51-75, Set C: 1-25, Set D: 26-50
76. Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya Kingdom?
(c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
77. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD)
78. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:
1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism
2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
79. Mediterranean Sea if a border of which of the following countries?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
80. With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It has a corpus of ₹ 4,00,000 crore at present.
81. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an
(a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
(b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
(c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
(d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.
82. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
(a) anyone residing in India
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India
Source: Indian Polity – Laxmikanth
83. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.
(d) 1 and 3 only
Source: http://gbpihedenvis.nic.in/him_states.htm , https://www.britannica.com/place/Pulicat-Lake , http://whc.unesco.org/en/list/1342
84. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for
(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
85. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.
86. With reference to National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.
2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education.
87. In the context of Indian history, the principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to
(a) Division of the central legislature into two hours.
(b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments.
(c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
(d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.
88. Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’”:
1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
2. National Career Service has been launched in Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.
89. Which of the following statements best describes the term, ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A), recently seen in the news?
(a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.
(b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
(c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
(d) It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government.
90. Consider the following statements:
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.
91. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. IOD phenomenon is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence are El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.
92. If you want to see sea gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Chambal River
(c) Pulicat lake
(d) Deepor Beel
93. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):
1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.
94. The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at
95. Consider the following pairs:
1. Chaliha Sahib Festival – Sindhis
2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra – Gonds
3. Wari-Warkari – Santhals
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(d) None of the above
Source: http://www.jhulelal.com/infotainment/story.html , http://www.nandarajjat.u-sac.in/home.html
96. Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture?
1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land.
2. Applying gypsims before irrigating the field
3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field
(d) 1,2 and 3
Source: http://agritech.tnau.ac.in/agriculture/agri_tillage_modernconcepts.html , http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/Straws-in-the-wind/article16441019.ece
97. Consider the following statements:
The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at
1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.
98. Consider the following pairs:
Commonly used/consumed materials Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them
1. Lipstick- Lead
2. Soft Drinks- Brominated vegetable oils
3. Chinese fast food- Monosodium glutamate
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct matched?
99. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?
1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.
2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs
3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs.
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above statements is correct.
100. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?
Directions for the following 8[eight] items: Read the following seven passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
Disruption of traditional institutions , identifications and loyalties is likely to lead to ambivalent situations. It is possible that some people may renew their identification with traditional groups whereas others align themselves with new groups and symbols emergent from processes of political development. In addition, political development tends to foster group awareness of a variety of class, tribe, region, clan language, religion , occupation and others.
1) Which of the following is the best explanation of the above passage?
(a) Political development is not a unilinear process for it involves both growth and decay.
(b) Traditional societies succeed in resisting positive aspects of political development.
(c) It is impossible for traditional societies to break away from lingering loyalties.
(d) Sustenance of traditional loyalties is conducive to political development
Passage – 2
There has been a significant trend worldwide towards regionalism in government, resulting in widespread transfer of powers downwards towards regions and communities since 1990s. This process entities and bodies at a sub-national level and an increase in their content and powers, is known as devolution. Devolution has been characterized as being made up of three factors – political legitimacny, decentralization of authority and decentralization of resources. Political legitimacy here means a mass demand from below for the decentralization process, which is able to create a political force for it to take place. In many cases, decentralization is initiated by the upper tier of government without sufficient political mobilization for it at the grassroots level, and in such cases the decentralization process often does not fulfil its objectives.
2) Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) Emergence of powerful mass leaders is essential to create sub-national political entities and thus ensure successful devolution and decentralization.
(b) The upper tier of government should impose devolution and decentralization on the regional communties by law or otherwise.
(c) Devolution, to be successful, requires a democracy in which there is free expression in which there is free expression of the will of the people at lower level and their active participation at the grassroots level.
(d) For devolution to take place, a strong feeling of regionalism in the masses is essential.
Passage – 3
We live in digital times. The digital is not just something we use strategically and specifically to do a few tasks. Our very perception of who we are, how we connect to the world around us, and the ways in which we define our domains of life, labour and language are hugely structured by the digital technologies. The digital is everywhere and, like air, invisible. We live within digital systems, we live with intimate gadgets, we interact through digital media, and the very presence and imagination of the digital has dramatically restructured out lives . The digital , far from being a tool , is a condition and context that defines the shapes and boundaries of our understanding of the self, the society, and the structure of governance.
3) Which among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage?
(a) All problems of governance can be solved by using digital technologies.
(b) Speaking of digital technologies is speaking of our life and living
(c) Our creativity and imagination cannot be expressed without digital media.
(d) Use of digital systems is imperative for the existence of mankind in future
Passage – 4
The IMF has pointed out that the fast growing economies of Asia face the risk of falling into economies of Asia face the risk of falling into ‘middle-income trap’. It means that average incomes in these countries, which till now have been growing raidly, will stop growing beyond a point – a point that is well short of incomes in the developed West. The IMF identifies a number of causes of middle income trap – none of which is surprising – from infrastructure to weak institutions , to less than favourable macroeconomic conditions. But the broad, overall cause, says IMF, is a collapse in the growth of productivity.
4) Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) Once a country reaches middle income stage, it runs the risk of falling productivity whcih leads to stagnantg incomes.
(b) Falling into middle-income trap is a general characteristic of fast growing economies.
(c) There is no hope at all for emerging Asian economies to sustain the growth momentum.
(d) As regards growth of productivity , the performance of Asian economies is not satisfactory.
Passage – 5
An innovative India will be inclusive as well as technologically advanced, improving the lives of all Inidans. Innovation and R& D can mitigate increases in social inequality and relieve the pressures created by rapid urbanization. The growing divergence in producitivity between agriculture and knwoledge intensive manufacturing and services threatens to increase income inequality. By encouraging India’s R&D labs and universities to focus on the needs of poor people and by improving the ability of informal firms to absorb knowledge , an innovation and research agenda can counter this effect. Inclusive innovation can lower the costs of goods and services and create income-earning opportunities for hte poor people.
5) Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage?
(a) Innovation and R&D is the only way to reduce rural to urban migration
(b) Every rapidly growing country needs to minimize the divergence between productivity in agriculture and other sectors
(c) Inclusive innovation and R&D can help create an egalitarian society
(d) Rapid urbanization takes place only when a country’s economic growth is rapid.
Passage – 6
Climate change is likely to expose a large number of people to increasing environmental risks forcing them to migrate. The international community is yet to recognize this new category of migrants. There is no consensus on the definition and status of climate refugees owing to the distinct meaning the term refugees carry under international laws. There are still gaps in understanding how climate change will work as the root cause of migration. Even if there is recognition of climate refugees, who is going to provide protection? More emphasis has been given to international migration due to climate change . But ther is a need to recognize the migration of such people within the countries also so that their problems can be addressed properly.
6) Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?
(a) The world will not be able to cope with large-scale migration of climate refugees.
(b) We must find the ways and means to stop further climate change.
(c) Climate change will be the most important reason for the migration of people in the future.
(d) Relation between climate change and migration is not yet properly understood.
Passage – 7
Many farmers use synthetic pesticides to kill infesting insects. The consumption of pesticides in some of the developed countries is touching 3000 grams/hectare. Unfortunately, there are reports that these compounds possess inherent toxicities that endanger the health of the farm operators, consumers and the environment. Synthetic pesticides are generally persistent in environment. Entering in food chain they destroy the microbial diversity and cause ecological imbalance. Their indiscriminate use has resulted in development of resistance among insects to insecticides, upsetting of balance in nature and resurgence of treated populations. Natural pest control using the botanical pesticides is safer to the user and the environment because they break down into harmless compounds within hours or days in the presence of sunlight. Plants with pesticidal properties have been in nature for millions of years without any ill or adverse effects on the ecosystem. They are easily decomposed by many microbes common in most soils. They help in the maintenance of biological diversity of predators and the reduction of environmental contamination and human health hazards. Botanical pesticides formulated from plants are biodegradable and their use in crop protection is a practical sustainable alternative.
7) On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Synthetic pesticides should never be used in modern agriculture.
2. One of hte aims of sustainable agriculture is to ensure minimal ecological imablance.
3. Botanical pesticides are more effective as compared to synthetic pesticides.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?
8) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding biopesticides?
1. They are not hazardous to human health.
2. They are persistent in environment.
3. They are essential to maintain the biodiversity of any ecosystem.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
9) Certain 3-digit numbers have the following characteristics :
1. All the three digits are different.
2. The number is divisible by 7
3. The number ofn reversing the digits is also divisible by 7.
How many such 3 digit numbers are there?
10) Examine the following statements :
1. All colours are pleasant.
2. Some colours are pleasant.
3. No colour is pleasant
4. Some colours are not pleasant.
Give that statement 4 is true , what can be definitely concluded?
(a) 1 and 2 are true
(b) 3 is true
(c) 2 is false
(d) 1 is false
11) How many numbers are there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the units place?
12) If for a sample data
Mean < Median < Mode
Then the distribution is
(b) skewed to the right
(c) neither symmetric nor skewed
(d) skewed to the left
13) The age of Mr.X last year was the square of a number and it would be the cube of a number next year. What is the least number of years he must wait for his age to become the cube of a number again?
14) P works thrice as fast as Q, whereas P and Q together can work four times as fast as R. If P, Q and R together work on a job, in what ratio should they share the earnings?
(a) 3 : 1 : 1
(b) 3 : 2 : 4
(c) 4 : 3 : 4
(d) 3 : 1 : 4
15) Consider the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F.
1. The number of males equals that of females.
2. A and E are sons of F
3. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl.
4. B is the son of A.
5. There is only one married couple in the family at present.
Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?
(a) A, B and C are all females.
(b) A is the husband of D
(c) E and F are children of D.
(d) D is the daughter of F.
16) A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are green , 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded [without replacing any of it] to be assured of picking at least one ball of each colour?
17) If 2 boy and 2 girls are to be arranged in a rwo so that the girls are not next to each other, how many possible arrangements are there ?
18) The outer sufrace of a 4cm x 4cm x 4cm cube is painted completely in red. It is sliced parallel to the faces to yield sixty four 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm small cubes. How many small cubes do not have painted faces?
19) Considre the following :
A , B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a row facing North.
B is not neighbour of G.
F is to the immediate right of G and neighbour of E.
G is not at the extreme end.
A is sixth to the left of E.
H is sixth to the right of C.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above?
(a) C is to the immediate left of A.
(b) D is immediate neighbour of B and F
(c) G is to the immediate right of D
(d) A and E are at the extreme ends.
20) In a certain code, ‘256’ means ‘red colour chalk’, ‘589’ means ‘green colour flower’ and ‘254’ means ‘white colour chalk’. The digit in the code that indicates ‘white’ is
21) Which among the following is the most logical and rational infernece that can be made from the above passsage?
(a) Our governments are not responsible to keep our cities pollution free
(b) There is absolutely no need for air quality indices in our country.
(c) Air quality index is not helpful to the residents of many of our large cities.
(d) In every city, public awareness about pollution problems should increase.
Passage – 2Productive jobs are vital for growth and a good job is the best form of inclusion. More than half of our population depends on agriculture, but the experience of other countries suggests that the number of people dependent on agriculture will have to shrink if per capita incomes in agriculture are to go up substantially. While the industry is creating jobs, too many such
Productive jobs are vital for growth and a good job is the best form of inclusion. More than half of our population depends on agriculture, but the experience of other countries suggests that the number of people dependent on agriculture will have to shrink if per capita incomes in agriculture are to go up substantially. While the industry is creating jobs, too many such job are low-productivity non-contractual jobs in the unorganized sector, offering low incomes, little protection, and no benefits. Service jobs are relatively of high productivity, but employment growth in services has been slow in recent years.
22) Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) We must create conditions for the faster growth of highly productive service jobs to ensure employment growth and inclusion.
(b) We must shift the farm workers to the highly productive manufacturing and service sectors to ensure the economic growth and inclusion.
(c) We must create conditions for the faster growth of productive jobs outside of agriculture even while improving the productivity of agriculture
(d) We must emphasize the cultivation of high yielding hybrid varieties and genetically modified crops to increase the per capita income in agriculture.
Passage – 3
A landscape – scale aproached to land use can encourage greater biodiversity outside protected areas. During hurricane ‘Mitch’ in 1998, farms using ecoagricultural practices suffered 58 per cent, 70 percent and 99 percent less damage in Honduras, Nicaragua and Guatemala, respectively, than farms using conventional techniques. In Costa Rica, vegetative wind breaks and fence rows boosted farmers’ income from pasture and coffee while also increasing bird diversity. Bee pollination is more effective when agricultural fields are closer to natural or seminatural habitat, a finding that matters because 87 percent of the world’s 107 leading crops depend on animal pollinators. In Costa Rica, nicaragua and Colombia silvopastoral systems that integrate trees with pastureland are improving the sustainability of cattle production , and diversifying and increasing farmer’s income.
23) Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) Agricultural practices that enhance biodiversity can often increase farm output and reduce the vulnerability to disasters
(b) All the countries of the world should be encouraged to replace ecoagriculture with conventional agriculture
(c) Econagriculture shuld be permitted in protected areas without destroying the biodiversity there.
(d) The yield of food crops will be very high if ecoagricultural practices are adopted to cultivate them.
Passage – 4
The medium term challenge for Indian manufacturing is to move from lower to higher tech sectors, from lower to higher value added sectors, and from lower to higher productivity sectors. Medium tech industries are primarily capital intensive and resource processing and high tech industries are mainly capital and technology intensive. In order to push the share of manufacturing in overall GDP to the projected 25 per cent, Indian manufacturing needs to capture the global market in sectors showing a rising trend in demand. These sectors are largely high technology and capital intensive.
24) Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) India’s GDP displays high value added and high productivity levels in medium tech and resource processing industries.
(b) Promotion of capital and technology intensive manufacturing is not possible in India.
(c) India should push up the public investments and encourage the private investments in research and development, technology upgradations and skill development.
(d) India has already gained a great share in global markets in sectors showing a rising trend in demand.
Passage – 5
Over the last decade, Indian agriculture has become more robust with record production of food grains and oil seeds. Increased procurement, consequently , had added huge stocks of food grains in the granaries. India is one of the world’s top producers of rice, wheat, milk, fruits and vegetables. India is still home to a quarter of all undernourshied people in the world. On an average , almost half of the total expenditure of nearly half of the households is on food.
25) Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?
(a) Increasing the efficiency of farm to form value chain is necessary to reduce the poverty and malnutrition.
(b) Increasing the agricultural productivity will automatically eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India.
(c) India’s agricultural productivity is already great and it is not necessary to increase it further.
(d) Allocation of more funds for social welfare and poverty alleviation programmes will ultimately eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India.
Passage – 6
The States are like pearls and the Centres is the thread which turns them into a necklace; if the thread snaps, the pearls are scattered.
26) Which one of the following views corroborates the above statements?
(a) A strong Centre and strong States make the federation strong
(b) A strong Centre is a binding force for national integrity
(c) A strong Centre is a hindracne to State autonomy
(d) State autonomy is a prerequisite for a federation.
Passage – 7
Really I think that the poorest he that is in England has a life to live, as the greatest he, and therefore truly, I think it is clear that every man that is to live under a government ought first by his own consent to put himself under the government, and I do think that the poorest man in England is not at all bound in a strict sense to that government that he has not had a voice to put himself under.
27) The above statement argues for
(a) distribution of wealth equally to all
(b) rule according to the consent of the governed
(c) rule of the poor
(d) expropriation of the richs
28) The average rainfall in a city for the first four days was recorded to be 0 – 40 inch. The rainfall on the last two days was i the ratio of 4 : 3. The average of six days was 0 – 50 inch. What was the rainfall on the fifth day?
(a) 0 – 60 inch
(b) 0 – 70 inch
(c) 0 – 80 inch
(d) 0 – 90 inch
Directions for the following 3 [three] items : Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow :
A, B, C, D , E , F and G are Lecturers from different cities – Hyderabad, Delhi, Shillong, Kanpur, Chennai, Mumbai and Srinagar [not necessarily in the same order ] who participated in a conference . Each one of them is specialized in a different subject, viz, Economics, Commerce, History, Sociology, Geography, Mathematics and Statistics [not necessarily in the same order ] . further
1. Lecturer from Kanpur is specialized in Geography
2. Lecturer D is from Shillong
3. Lecturer C from Delhi is specialized in Sociology
4. Lecturer B is specialized in neither History nor Mathematics.
5. Lecturer A who is specialized in Economics does not belong to Hyderabad.
6. Lecturer F who is specialized in Commerce belongs to Srinagar.
7. Lecturer G who is specialized in Statistics belongs to Chennai.
29) Who is specialized in Geography?
(d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate
30) To which city does the Lecturer specialized in Economics belong?
(c) Neither Hyderabad nor Mumbai
(d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate
31) Who of the following belongs to Hyderabad ?
(c) Neither B nor E
(d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate
32) In a school, there are five teachers A, B, C, D and E , A and B teach Hindi and English. C and B teach English and Geography. D and A teach Mathematics and Hindi. E and B teach History and French. Who teaches maximum number of subjects?
33) A 2 – digit number is reversed. The larger of the two numbers is divided by the smaller one. What is the larges possible remainder?
34) The monthly incomes of X and Y are in the ratio of 4 : 3 and their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. However, each saves Rs.6,000 per month. What is their total montly income?
35) Two walls and a ceiling of a room meet at right angles at a point P. A fly is in the air 1 m from one wall, 8 m from the other wall and 9m from the point P. How many meters is the fly from the ceiling?
Directions for the following 3 [ three ] items : Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow
Eight railway stations A, B, C, D, E , F , G and H are connected either by two way passages or one-way passages. One-way passages are from C to A, E to G , B to F , D to H, G to C, E to C and H to G. Two way passages are between A and E , G and B , F and D , and E and D
36) While travelling from C to H, which one of the following stations must be passed?
37) In how many different ways can a train travel from F to A without passing through any station more than once?
38) If the route between G and C is closed, which one of the following stations need not be passed through while travelling from H to C?
39) There are certain 2-digit numbers. The difference between the number and the one obtained on reversing it is always 27. How many such maximum 2-digit numbers are there ?
(d) None of the above
40) What is the total number of digits printed, if a book containing 150 pages is to be numbered from 1 to 150?
Directions for the following 7 items:
Read the following seven passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
We have hard work ahead. There is no resting for any of us till we make all the people of India what destiny intends them to be. We are citizens of a great country, on the verge of bold advance, and We have to live up to that high standard. All of us, to whatever religion we may belong, are equality the children of India with equal rights, privileges and obligations. We cannot encourage communalism or narrow-mindedness, for no nation can be great whose people are narrow in thought or action.
41. The challenge the author of the above passage throws to the public is to achieve.
(a) a high standard of living, progress and privileges
(b) equal privileges, fulfilment of destiny and political tolerance
(c) spirit of adventure and economic parity
(d) hard work, brotherhood and national unity
“The individual, according to Rousseau, Puts his person and all his power in common under the supreme direction of the General Will and in our corporate capacity we receive each other member as an indivisible part of the whole”.
42. In the light of the above passage, the nature of general will is best described as
(a) the sum total of the private wills of the individuals
(b) what is articulated by the elected representatives of the individuals
(c) the collective good as distinct from private wills of the individuals
(d) the material interests of the community
In a democratic State, where a high degree of political maturity of the people obtains, the conflicts between the will of the sovereign law-making body and the organized will of the people seldom occurs.
43. What does the above passage imply?
(a) In a democracy, force is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty
(b) In a mature democracy, force to a great extant is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty
(c) In a mature democracy, use of force is irrelevant in the actual exercise of sovereignty
(d) In a mature democracy, force is narrowed down to a marginal phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty
A successful democracy depends upon, widespread interest and participation in politics in which voting is an essential part to deliberately refrain from taking such an interest, and from voting, is a kind of implied anarchy; itis to refuse one’s political responsibility while enjoying the benefits of a fee political society.
44. This passage relates to
(a) duty to vote
(b) right to vote
(c) freedom to vote
(d) right to participate in polities
In a free country. the man who reaches the position of leader is usually one of outstanding character and ability. Moreover. it is usually possible to foresee that he will reach such a position, since early to life one can see his qualities of character. But this is not always true in the case of a dictator; often he reaches his position of power through chance, very often through the unhappy state of his country,
45. The passage seems to suggest that
(a) a leader foresees his future position
(b) a leader is chosen only by a free country
(c) a leader must see that his country is free from despair
(d) despair in a country sometimes leads to dictatorship
The greatest blessing that technological Progress has in store for mankind is not, of course, an accumulation of material possessions. The amount of these that can be effectively enjoyed by one individual in one lifetime is not pleat. But there is not the same narrow limit to the possibilities of the enjoyment of leisure. The gift of leisure may be abused by people who have had no experience of making use of it. Yet the creative use of leisure by a minority in societies has been the mainspring of all human progress beyond the primitive level.
46. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1) People always see the leisure time as a gift and use n for acquiring more material possessions.
2) Use of leisure by some people to produce new and original things has been the chief source of human progress.
Which of these assumptions is/are valid?
(a) I only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
There is more than a modicum of truth in the assertion that “a working knowledge of ancient history is necessary to the intelligent interpretation of current events”. But the sage who uttered these words of wisdom might well have added something on the benefits of studying particularly the famous battles of history for the lessons they contain for those of us who lead or aspire to leadership. Such a study will reveal certain qualities and attributes which enabled the winners to win—and certain defriends which caused the losers to lose to the student will see that the same pattern recurs consistently, again and again, throughout the centuries.
47. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1) A study of the famous battles of history would help us understand the modern warfare.
2) Studying the history is essential for anyone who aspires to be a leader.
(c) Both 1 and 2
48. Suppose the average weight of 9 persons is 50 kg. The average weight of the first 5 persons is 45 kg, whereas the average weight of the last 5 persons is 55 kg. Then the weight of the 5th person will be
(a) 45 kg
(b) 47.5 kg
(c) 50 kg
(4) 52.5 kg
49. In a group of six women, there are four tennis players, four postgraduates in Sociology, one postgraduate in Commerce and three bank employees Vimala and Kamla are the bank employees while Amala and Komala are unemployed. Komala and Nirmala are among the tennis players. Amala, Kamla, Komala and Nirmala are postgraduates in Sociology of whom two are bank employees. If Shyamala is a postgraduate in Commerce, who among the following is both a tennis player and a bank employee?
50. P = (40% of A) (65% of 13) and Q = (SO% of A) (50% of B), where A is greater than a
In this context, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) P is greater than Q.
(b) Q is greater than P
(c) P is equal to Q.
(d) None of the above can be concluded with certainty.
51. A Watch loses 2 minutes in every 24 hours while another watch gains 2 minutes in even’ 24 hours. At a particular instant, the two watches showed an identical time. Which of the following statements is correct if 24-hour clock is followed?
(a) The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 30 days.
(b) The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 90 days.
(c) The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 120 days.
(d) None of the above statements is Correct.
52. In a city, 12% of households earn less than rs 30,000 per year, 6% households earn more than f 2,00,000 per year, 22% households earn more than rs 1,00,000 per year and 990 house-holds earn between 130,000 and rs 1,00.000 per year. How many households earn between f 1,00,000 and f 2,00,000 per year?
53. A clock strikes once at 1 o’clock, twice at 2 o’clock and thrice at 3 o’clock, and so on. If it takes 12 seconds to strike nt 5 o’clock, what is the time taken by it to strike at 10 o’clock?
(a) 20 seconds
(b) 24 seconds
(c) 28 seconds
(d) 30 seconds
54. Consider the given statement and the two conclusions that follow:
Morning walk is good for health.
1. All healthy people go for morning walk.
2. Morning walk is essential for maintaining good health.
What is/are the valid conclusion/ conclusions?
55. There are thirteen 2-digit consecutive odd numbers. If 39 is the mean of the first five such numbers, then what is the mean of all the thirteen numbers?
56) Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F play a game of cards. Each has a pack of 10 cards. F borrows 2 cards from A and gives away 5 to C who in tum gives 3 to B while B gives 6 to D who passes on 1 to E Then the number of cards possessed by D and E Is equal to the number of cards possessed by
(a) A, B and C
(b) B, C and F
(c) A, B and F
(d) A, C and F
57) There is a milk sample with 50% water in it. If 1/3rd of this milk is added to equal amount of pure milk, then water in the new mixture will fall down to
58) There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical lines, parallel and equidistant to one another on a board. What is the maximum number of rectangles and squares that can be formed?
59) A freight train left Delhi for Mumbai at an average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours later, an express train left Delhi for Mumbai. following the freight train on a parallel track at an average speed of 60 km/hr. How far from Delhi would the express train meet the freight train?
(a) 480 km
(b) 260 km
(c) 290 km
(d) 120 km
60) In a test, Randhir obtained more marks than the total marks obtained by Kunal and Debt. The total marks obtained by Kunal and Shankar are more than those of Randhir. Sonal obtained more marks than Shankar. Neha obtained more marks than Randhir. Who amongst them obtained highest marks?
(d) Data are inadequate
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following eight passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
What Climate change will undeniably do is cause or amplify events that hasten the reduction of resources. Competition over these diminishing resources would ensue in the form of political or even violent conflict. Resource-based conflicts have rarely been overt and are thus difficult to isolate. Instead they take on veneers that appear more politically palatable. Conflicts over resources like water are often cloaked in the guise of identity or ideology.
61. What does the above passage imply?
(a) Resource-based conflicts are always politically motivated.
(b) There are no political solutions to resolve environmental and resource-based conflicts.
(c) Environmental issues contribute to resource stresses and political conflict
(d) Political conflict based on identity or ideology cannot be resolved.
The man who is perpetually hesitating which of the two things will he do first, will do neither. The man who resolves, but suffers his resolution to be changed by the first counter-suggestion of a friend-who fluctuates from opinion to opinion and veers from plan to plan-can never accomplish anything. He will at best be stationary and probably retrograde in all. It is only the man who first consults wisely, then resolves firmly and then executes his purpose with inflexible perseverance, undismayed by those petty difficulties which daunt a weaker spirit- that can advance to eminence in any line.
62. The keynote that seems to be emerging from the passage is that
(a) we should first consult wisely and then resolve firmly.
(b) we should reject suggestions of friends and remain unchanged.
(c) we should always remain broad-minded.
(d) we should be resolute and achievement-oriented.
During the summer in the Artic Ocean, sea ice has been melting earlier and faster, and the winter freeze has been coming later. In the last three decades, the extent of summer ice has declined by about 30 percent. The lengthening period of summer melt threatens to undermine the whole Artic food web, atop which stand polar bears.
63. Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
(a) Climate change has caused Arctic summer to be short but temperature to be high.
(b) Polar bears can be shifted to South Pole to ensure their survival.
(c) Without the presence of polar bears, the food chains in Arctic region will disappear.
(d) Climate change poses a threat to the survival of polar bears.
Why do people prefer open defecation and not want toilets or, if they have them, only use them sometimes? Recent research has shown two critical elements: ideas of purity and pollution, and not wanting pits or septic tanks to fill because they have to be emptied. These are the issues that nobody wants to talk about, but if we want to eradicate the practice of open defecation, they have to be confronted and dealt properly.
64. Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
(a) The ideas of purity and pollution are so deep-rooted that they cannot be removed from the minds of the people.
(b) People have to perceive toilet use and pit-emptying as clean and not polluting.
(c) People cannot change their old habits.
(d) People have neither civic sense nor sense of privacy.
In the last two decades, the world’s gross domestic product (GDP) has increased by 50 per cent, whereas inclusive wealth has increased by a mere 6 per cent. In recent decades, GDP-driven economic performance has only harmed inclusive wealth like human capital; and natural capital like forests, land and water. While the world’s human capital which stands at 57 percent of total inclusive wealth grew by only 8 per cent, the natural capital which is 23 percent of total inclusive wealth declined by 30 percent worldwide in the last two decades.
65. Which of the following is the most crucial inference from the above passage?
(a) More emphasis should be laid on the development of natural capital.
(b) The growth driven by GDP only is neither desirable nor sustainable.
(c) The economic performance of the countries of the world is not satisfactory.
(d) The world needs more human capital under the present circumstances.
By 2020, when the global economy is expected to run short of 56 million young people, India, with its youth surplus of 47 million, could fill the gap. It is this context that labour reforms are often cited as the way to unlock double-digit growth in India. In 2014, India’s labour force was estimated to be about 40 per cent of the population, but 93 per cent of this force was unorganized sector. Over the last decade, the compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of employment has slowed to 0-5 per cent, with about 14 million jobs created during last year when the labour increased by about 15 million.
66. Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?
(a) India must control its population growth so as to reduce its unemployment rate.
(b) Labour reforms are required in India to make optimum use of its vast labour force productively.
(c) India is poised to achieve the double-digit growth very soon.
(d) India is capable of supplying the skilled young people to other countries.
The very first lesson that should be taught to us when we are old enough to understand it, is that complete freedom from the obligation to work is unnatural, and ought to be illegal, as we can escape our share of the burden of world only by throwing it on someone else’s shoulders. Nature ordains that the human race shall perish of famine if it stops working. We cannot escape from this tyranny. The question we have to settle is how much leisure we can afford to allow ourselves.
67. The main idea of the passage is that
(a) It is essential for human beings to work
(b) there should be a balance between work and leisure
(c) working is a tyranny which we have to face
(d) human’s understanding of the nature of work is essential
There is no harm in cultivating habits so long as they are not injurious. Indeed, most of us are little more than bundle of habits. Take away our habits and the residuum would hardly be worth bothering about. We could not get on without them. They simplify the mechanism of life. They enable us to a multitude of things automatically, which, if we have to give fresh and original thought to them each time, would make existence an impossible confusion.
68. The author suggests that habits
(a) tend to make our lives difficult
(b) add precision to our lives
(c) make it easier for us to live
(d) tend to mechanize our lives
Directions for the following two items:
Consider the given information and answer the two items that follow.
No supporters of ‘party X’, who knew X and supported his campaign strategy, agreed for the alliance with ‘party Y’, but some of them had friends in ‘party Y’.
69. With reference to the above information, which one among the following statements must be true?
(a) some supporters of ‘party y’ did not agree for the alliance with the ‘party X’
(b) There is at least one supporter of ‘party y’ who knew some supporters of ‘party X’ as a friend.
(c) no supporters of ‘party CX’ supported Z’s campaign strategy.
(d) no supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z.
70. With reference to the above information, consider the following statements.
1. Some supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z.
2. Some supporters of ‘party X’ who opposed Z’s campaign strategy, knew Z.
3 No supporters of ‘party X’ supported Z’s campaign stratergy.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3.
71. If second and fourth Saturdays and all the Sundays are taken as only holidays for an office, what would be the minimum number of possible working days of any month of any year?
72. If there is a policy that 1/3rd of a population of a community has migrated every year from every year from once place to some other place, what is the leftover population of that community after the sixth year, if there is no further growth in the population during that period?
(a) 16/243rd part of the population
(b) 32/243rd part of the population
(c) 32/729th part of the population
(d) 64/729th part of the population
73. Four tents- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology are to be conducted on four consecutive days not necessarily in the same order. The Physics test is held before the test which is conducted after Biology. Chemistry is conducted after two tests are held. Which is the last test held?
74. The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the income of B and D. Whose income is the highest?
75. Consider the following:
Statement: Good voice is a natural gift but no one has to keep practicing to improve and excel well in the field of music.
I. Natural gifts need nurturing and care.
II. Even though one’s voice is not good; one can keep practicing.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statement and conclusions?
(a) Only conclusion I follows from the statement.
(b) Only conclusion II follows from the statement.
(c) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows from the statement.
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows from the statement.
76. There are three pillars X, Y and Z of different heights. Three spiders A, B and C start to climb on these pillars simultaneously. In once chance, A climbs on X by 6cm but slips down by 1 cm. B climbs on Y by 7cm but slips down 3 cm. C climbs on Z by 6-5 cm but slips down 2cm. If each of the them requires 40 chances to reach the top of the pillars, what is the height of the shortest pillar?
(a) 161 cm
(b) 163 cm
(c) 182 cm
(d) 210 cm
77. “Rights are certain advantageous conditions of social well-being indispensable of the true development of the citizen” In the light of this statement, which one of the following is the correct understanding of rights?
(a) Rights aim at individual good only
(b) Rights aim at social good only
(c) Rights aim at both individual and social good
(d) rights aim at individual good devoid of social well-being.
78. 15 students failed in a class of 52. After removing the names of failed students, a merit order list has been prepared in which the position of Ramesh is 22nd from the top. What is his position from the bottom?
79. Consider the following:
A+B means A is the son of B
A-B means A is the wife of B
What does the expression P+R-Q mean?
(a) Q is the son of P
(b) Q is the wife of P
(c) Q is the father P
(d) None of the above.
80. Gopal bought a cell phone and sold it to Ram at 10% profit. Then Ram wanted to sell it back to Gopal at 10% loss. What will be Gopal’s position if he agreed?
(a) Neither loss nor gain
(b) Loss 1%
(c) gain 1%
(d) Gain 0.5%
After analyzing the question paper it seems 80 to 90 questions are answerable. Students who followed last one year current affairs and have conceptual clarity than they would have solved this paper better.
On an average, students would have attempted 75 to 95 questions, and in that 20 to 30% natural error occur. So, that means most of the students will get 50 to 65 questions net correct (after deducting negative marks).
As compared to last year (2016) Prelims exam 2017 Question Paper was relatively tougher. Last year General Category cut off mark was 116, based on toughness of question paper, the cut off marks may come down for this year.
Over all our prediction of cut off for this year prelims exam:
UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2017 includes answers for both Paper 1 and CSAT and the complete questions paper with detailed explanations and sources. The Prelims answer key helps to determine UPSC Prelims Cut Off 2017 based on a large number of students and experienced teachers from top Institutes of IAS Coaching in Delhi. Register now on NeoStencil to access and download the IAS Prelims Answer Key 2017 with detailed explanations and their sources.
UPSC Prelims Cut Off 2017 shall be decided by merit based on paper 1 and paper 2 of prelims exam. Both the papers carry 200 marks each (Total 400 marks). Candidates who had appeared for the UPSC Prelims Exam 2017 can check the UPSC Prelims 2017 Answer Key and assess their chances of writing mains exam. Only a candidate who qualifies in both papers will be eligible to appear for the UPSC Mains exam.
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Sir, I am in SC my Gs score 90 if any chance for mains
Sir getting 98 minimum mark’s belong to obc what are the chances of clearing prelims
sir what if a student gets the required qualifying score in paper 2 and misses by a few marks in paper 1. is that student eligible for mains??
Hello sir.i just now checked the CSAT Answers..I think 3_4 questions are varying in nature according to other institutions..
Sir i got 92-94 from varoius key in sc category what can i do
You are in border. Anyways prepare for your mains exam. UPSC announces result in August first or second week. Don’t waste time.
All the Best.
69-70 CATEGORY PWD ORTHO. PLEASE SUGGEST WILL I QUALIFY
SIR ,I DINT ATTENDED EXAM THIS TIME BUT I NEED TO PREPARE FOR NEXT YEAR ,SO PLZ CAN U GET ME SOME GUIDELINES.
Concentrate on your basics and develop conceptual clarity on all topics you prepare. Focus on current affairs on daily basis.
i am getting 108 -110 according to various keys,gen category, any chances??? getting worried
Now its not time to analyse your Prelims scores. Try to start preparing for mains exam and prepare your optional well.
i have secured 117.91 in paper 1 as per ur key answers.. i belong to GEN category. what r my chances??
March forward with your mains preparation.
I m getting 120 in gs1 …
But marks in 2nd paper varying ….66 from some keys ….69 minimum from ur key considering some mistakes in ur key…
What should I do?
Your GS Paper 1 marks shows you are in safer zone. Regarding CSAT, the answer keys are provided for your reference alone. You should focus on mains exam.
sir i want to ask if the expected cut off is prepared based only on the relative toughness level of the paper or other factors are also considered.
Expected cut off marks is derived based on number of vacancies, toughness of question paper along with guidance with our partner teachers and students feedback.
getting 110 – 112 general category . Is there a chance to clear
Prepare for your mains exam. Best wishes.
Sir why are you creating a lie, when you already know last year cutoff was 116
cut off marks varies every depending upon the toughness of the question paper. This is just a prediction.
Dear neostensil…. at least some of your answers of Paper-2 are correct!! Congratulations!!
On a serious note…. do hire better experts to solve questions. Even very basic quant questions are wrong.
Thanks for your feedback.
67-68 in Paper 1 for PWD Ortho . Any chances?
Last year cut off marks for PH1 is 75.34. This year question paper was relatively tougher than last year. So, cut off may come down.
Dear sir i am geeting 108 marks in GS -1 , Category SC, what should be my next step now??
Start preparing for the mains examination.
All the best.
for what are all the questions in paper 2, we don’t have negative marks
In prelims paper 2, there is no negative marking only for decision making questions alone. But for the last four years UPSC is not asking questions on decision making.
excellent work. very helpful. thank you
Sir ,As per neostencil key I am getting 107 marks .I comes under OBC category. Is there any chance for getting clear.
You are in safe zone. Cut off for OBC category for this year will reduce as compared to last two years. Start preparing for your mains exams.
All the Best.!
Hi sir my brother getting 100+ st catogery what is his chances for clear of prelims
Hi Dharam Singh,
Your brother is in safe zone. As prelims question paper was tough this year cut off marks will reduce. Ask him to start prepare for mains exam.
hi can you let me know the link for paper 2 key
Answer Key for CSAT paper is updated. You can check now!
Cutoff should be less this year….we expect 106 (+-3) marks. Rest is upto UPSC 🙂
sir what is cut off this year ?
sir what will be cut off this year ?
Neostencil is an awesome online website for IAS preparation. The answer key that you have released now is really really very helpful…..
Thanks Anay….Let us know if you want us to double check on certain answers. All the best.
Wow! that was lightning fast 🙂 thanks so much ..especially for the sources
Hi Students, below comments are of UPSC Prelims 2016 answer Key
Hello sir,m getting around 105 general,,,is there any chance to clear it,,,
Hello sir plz help me…i m getting 92+ in sc catrgory …i m still very bothered about what next..
Getting around 107 – 112 for various keys.. OBC category.. let me know the possibilities.,
I’m getting 107 – 112 for various answer keys… OBC category. Please let me know the possibilities??? Too confusing state., Should i start preparing for mains?
Hello Sir, I know that this is futile to ask but the uncertainity is really killing me mentally. I am a Gen Cat candidate scoring 110-114. Please advise if I really have any hope left. Thanks.
Respected sir….I m getting 97.33 ( Paper 1) , Can I? ? ( ST candidate )…thanking u.
Dear Kalpesh, you hold a good chance to clear the exam. All the best!
101 obc whats my chance for mains sir…confused I m
Hi Sayantan, we can understand your situation and how it can be difficult to plan your next steps at this time. You are within our range of expected cutoff so there is a chance that you will clear the prelims. In any case, currently the best strategy is to start preparing for mains as if you are going to make it. Its likely that you will. If unfortunately you don’t, then you can start preparing strongly for prelims starting January and be in a better situation for mains next year!
I am getting 53 in paper 1 and 74 in paper 2 and my total for both is 127
This is my last attempt due to my age approaching 32 in dec…should i start studying for mains or should i leave
Hi Dr. Chaitanya, the cut-off is based on the Paper 1 alone. Paper 2 is of qualifying nature and everyone must qualify in that paper with a minimum of 33% marks. From your expected scores, it seems that your chances of clearing prelims are very low.
Sir i am getting 106-108 according to different keys…m having sleepless nights over this?what shud i do?
Hi Vipul, we can understand your situation and how it can be so stressful. You are within our range of expected cutoff so there is a good chance you will clear the prelims. In anycase, currently the best strategy is to start preparing for mains as if you are going to make it. Most likely you will. If unfortunately you don’t, then you can start preparing strongly for prelims starting January and be in a better situation for mains next year!
my daughter secured 122 in paper-I as per key provided by various institutions. What are the cut off marks for 2016 for General category
Dear Mr. Reddy, as per the expected cut off prepared by NeoStencil and it’s partner institute, the cut off for General category in paper 1 is 105 ± 4 marks. Therefore your daughter holds a good chance to clear the exam.
All the best!
Paper – 1 -> 15 Marks
Paper – 2 -> 90 Marks
Total = 105 Marks
How does cut-off gets calculated? I am really confused with internet data saying
cutoff = 107 approx [Only & Only by Paper – 1]
33% [Paper – 2]
Please explain it.
only paper 1 consider as merit formation, paper 2 is only qualifying in nature.
Hi sir, my score is 115.44 in OBC category. Please give me some idea about whether I’ll clear the prelims or not. Some are saying they are scoring 125-130 ans some even 140. I’m losing my night’s sleep hearing such marks. Please reply.
Dear Sandy, as per the expected cut off prepared by team NeoStencil in collaboration with the partner institutes, you hold a good chance to clear the exam.
Where is paper 2 answer key 2016?
Hi Digvijay, the key for paper 2 is also uploaded now, please check.
thanks for the explanation/sources
excellent key !
Thank you KB! 🙂
scoring 116….what cud be the cutoff this yr..was paper tough?
I am scoring 95-105 sc cat. Wat are my chances?
Dear Dev, you hold a chance to make it to the Mains exam. All the best!
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