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  • UPSC 2018 Prelims Answer Key


    We are the first to launch an accurate and comprehensive UPSC Prelims 2018 Answer Key. Paper 1 Answer Key (all sets) with detailed solutions and sources is LIVE now! We also have a first of its kind score calculator for you to check your score right away.

    Paper and SetAnswer Key Download Link
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    UPSC Prelims Paper 1 Set DDownload here

    UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2018

    Like every year, the IAS Answer Key has been prepared with the help of our subject matter experts.

     

    UPSC Prelims Answer Key – GS Paper 1 (All Sets)

    Click here to download full table

    Question NoSET ASET BSET CSET D
    1BDBA
    2DACD
    3CCBB
    4BAAB
    5ABAA
    6CBCB
    7ABAD
    8DBAD
    9CDDC
    10AABD
    11CBAB
    12DDAA
    13DCAB
    14DBCC
    15CCBC
    16ABBB
    17BBBD
    18DCBC
    19ACAB
    20BDBA
    21BCCC
    22BCDA
    23ABCD
    24BABC
    25BDCA
    26DCDC
    27DCAD
    28ACCD
    29ACAD
    30ADBC
    31ABBB
    32ACBB
    33ABBC
    34CADC
    35BAAD
    36BCBC
    37BADC
    38BACB
    39ADBA
    40BBCD
    41CBAC
    42DDDC
    43CCBC
    44BBBC
    45CAAD
    46BCBD
    47BADA
    48CDDC
    49CCCA
    50DADB
    51CCBB
    52CDAB
    53BDBB
    54ADCD
    55DCCA
    56CABB
    57CABD
    58CACC
    59CCCB
    60DBDC
    61ABCA
    62DBCB
    63BBBD
    64BAAA
    65ABDB
    66BCCB
    67DDCB
    68DCCA
    69CBCB
    70DCDB
    71BAAD
    72ADBD
    73BBDA
    74CBAA
    75CABA
    76DBBB
    77ADBC
    78CDAB
    79ACBA
    80BDBA
    81BBDC
    82BADA
    83BBAA
    84DCAD
    85ACAB
    86BABA
    87DBDA
    88CDCA
    89BABC
    90CBAB
    91BBCB
    92CBAB
    93BADB
    94ABCA
    95ABAB
    96CDCC
    97ADDD
    98AADC
    99DADB
    100BACC

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    UPSC Prelims 2018 Score Calculator – GS Paper 1

    How to use Score Calculator

    • For every question attempted by you, choose the corresponding option which you have marked by clicking on the radio bucket on the right of every option.
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    The questions are in order as in Set A

    Correct answers are highlighted in green color

    1. Consider the following statements:
      1) In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
      2) In the first Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the opposition “ was recognised for the first time in 1969.
      3) In the first Lok Sabha,if the party does not have a minimum 75 members, its leaders can not be recognised as the Leaders of the Opposition.
      Which of the statement given below is/ are correct?
      1. a)1 and 3 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)2 and 3 only
      4. d)1, 2 and 3
    2. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
      1) Hard and waxy leaves
      2) Tiny leaves
      3) Thorns instead of leaves
      Select the correct answer using the code given below:
      1. a)2 and 3 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    3. As per the NSSO 70th Round “ Situation Assessment Survey of Technical Households” consider the following statements:

      1) Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.

      2) Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percentage belongs to OBCs.

      3) In Kerala, a little over 60 percent agricultural households reported to have maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

      Which of the statement given below is/ are correct?

      1. a)2 and 3 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)1 and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    4. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)? 1) the NGT has been established by an Act and CPCB has been created by an executive order of the government.
      2) the NGT provides environmental justice and helps reducing the burden of litigation in the High Courts whereas the CPCB promotes the cleanliness of streams and wells , aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
      Which of the statement given below is/are correct?
      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 nor 2
    5. Consider the following statements:
      1) The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India
      2) The validity of law placed in Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
      Which of the statements given below is/ are correct?
      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 nor 2
    6. Which of the following best describes the term “ Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news ?

      1. a)The incentive by a Bank given to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods and services.
      2. b)The amount paid by bank to their customers when they pay by debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods and services.
      3. c)The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit card.
      4. d)The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through PoS( point of sale) machines and debit cards.
    7. Which is /are the consequence / consequences of becoming a member of the ‘Nuclear supplier Group’?

      1) It will have access to the latest and most effective nuclear technologies.

      2) It automatically becomes a member of “ The Treaty of non- proliferation of Nuclear weapons(NPT)”

      Which of the statements given below is/ are correct?

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 nor 2
    8. With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non resident entities , which of the following statement is/are correct?

      1) It is introduced as a part of Income Tax Act.

      2) Non Resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “ Double Taxation Avoidance commission”

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 nor 2
    9. Consider the following Statements:

      1) The Fiscal responsibility and the budget Management Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) Government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central government and 20% for the State Government.

      2) The Central government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to 49% of GDP of the State Governments.

      3) As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for the state to take Central government’s consent for raising any loans if the former owes any liabilities to the latter.

      Which of the given statement is/ are correct?

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 and 3 only
      3. c)1 and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    10. Consider the following statements:

      1) The quality of imported edible oil is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.

      2) the Government does not impose any custom duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 nor 2
    11. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for sometime; and was elected to the Central Assembly. He was:
      1. a)Aurobindo Ghosh
      2. b)Bipin Chandra Pal
      3. c)Lala Lajpat Rai
      4. d)Motilal Nehru
    12. Consider the following Statements:

      1) Aadhar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.

      2) Once issued, Aadhar card can not be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

      Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 nor 2
    13. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/ dried up in the recent past due to human activities ?

      1) Aral Sea

      2) Black Sea

      3) Lake Baikal

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 and 3
      3. c)2 only
      4. d)1 and 3
    14. “ Rule of the law Index “ is released by which of the following?

      1. a)Amnesty International
      2. b)International Court of Justice
      3. c)The Office of UN Commissioner of Human Rights
      4. d)World Justice Project
    15. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
      1. a)Indian Bank’s Association
      2. b)National Securities Depository Ltd.
      3. c)National Payments Corporation of India
      4. d)Reserve Bank of India
    16. Consider the following statements:

      1) Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that the banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that bank incur if the account holder fail to repay any dues.

      2) CAR is decided by each individual bank.

      Which of the following Statements given above is/are correct?

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 nor 2
    17. The identity platform ‘Aadhar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces(APIs)”. What does it imply?
      1) It is integrated into any electronic device.
      2) Online authentication using iris is possible.
      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 nor 2
    18. Very recently, In which of the following countries having lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ ethnic conflicts?

      1. a)Angola and Zambia
      2. b)Morocco and Tunisia
      3. c)Venezuela and Colombia
      4. d)Yemen and South Sudan
    19. Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true:

      1) Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.

      2) Establishment of universities was recommended.

      3) English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. a)1 and 2 only
      2. b)2 and 3 only
      3. c)1and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    20. With the reference to Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the power to make regulations, rules , sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
      1. a)Committee on Government Assurances
      2. b)Committee on Subordinate Legislation
      3. c)Rules Committee
      4. d)Business Advisory Committee
    21. Consider the following statements:
      1)As per the right to education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State council of Teacher education.
      2)As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
      3)In India, more than 90 % of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
      Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
      1. a)1 and 2
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)1 and 3
      4. d)3 only
    22. Consider the following pairs:
      Tradition State
      1. Chapchar Kut Festival – Mizoram
      2. Khongjom Parba ballad – Manipur
      3. Thang-Ta Dance – Sikim
      Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
      1. a)1 only
      2. b)1 and 2
      3. c)1 and 2
      4. d)2 and 3
    23. Consider the following statements :

      1)The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.

      2)The Food Safety and Standard Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

      Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 and 2
    24. The term “ two state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
      1. a)China
      2. b)Israel
      3. c)Iraq
      4. d)yemen
    25. With reference to the provisions made under the national Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

      1)The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.

      2)The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.

      3)Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘ take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

      1. a)1 and 2
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)1 and 3
      4. d)3 only
    26. India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods(Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

      1. a)ILO
      2. b)IMF
      3. c)UNCTAD
      4. d)WTO
    27. Consider the following statements :
      1)In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
      2)Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
      3)Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
      1. a)1 and 2
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)1 and 3
      4. d)3 only
    28. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

      1)BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with the UPI- enabled bank account.

      2)While a chip pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)both 1 and 2
      4. d)neither 1 and 2
    29. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi ?
      1. a)Bengaluru
      2. b)Hyderabad
      3. c)Nagpur
      4. d)Pune
    30. International Labour Organisation’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to
      1. a)Child Labour
      2. b)Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
      3. c)Regulation of food prices and food security
      4. d)Gender parity of the workplace
    31. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct ?

      1. a)A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
      2. b)A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
      3. c)A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
      4. d)A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
    32. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements :

      1)The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.

      2)The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 and 2
    33. In the Indian Context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘ Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’ ?
      1. a)The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
      2. b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
      3. c)The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
      4. d)The country automatically becomes the member of NSG.
    34. Consider the following countries:
      1)Australia
      2)Canada
      3)China
      4)India
      5)Japan
      6)USA
      Which of the above are among the ‘ free- trade partners’ of ASEAN ?
      1. a)1,2,4 and 5
      2. b)3,4,5 and 6
      3. c)1,3,4 and 5
      4. d)2,3,4 and 6
    35. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

      1)GACSA is an outcome of the climate summit held in Paris in 2015.

      2)Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.

      3)India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. a)1 and 3 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)2 and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    36. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India ?

      1)Formation of India’s own internet companies like China did.

      2)Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their last data centres within our national geographical boundaries.

      3)Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places nd major tourist centres.

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. a)1 and 2 only
      2. b)3 only
      3. c)2 and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    37. Consider the Following Pairs:
      Towns sometimes Country
      mentioned in news 1)Aleppo — Syria
      2)Kirkuk — Yemen
      3)Mosul –Palestine
      4)Mazar-i-Sharif — Afghanistan
      Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
      1. a)1 and 2
      2. b)1 and 4
      3. c)2 and 3
      4. d)3 and 4
    38. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary power were given to the
      1. a)Federal Legislature
      2. b)Governor General
      3. c)Provincial Legislature
      4. d)Provincial Governors
    39. Consider the following statements:

      1)The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.

      2)Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 and 2
    40. Which of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty ?
      1. a)If there are more laws, there is less Liberty.
      2. b)If there are no laws there is no liberty.
      3. c)If there is liberty, laws have to be made by people.
      4. d)If laws are changed too often liberty is in danger.
    41. Consider the following statements:

      1. No criminal proceeding shall be instituted

      Against the Governor of a state in any court

      during his terms of office.

      2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a state shall not be diminished

      during his terms of office.

      Which of the statement given above is /are correct?

      1. a)1 only.
      2. b)2 only.
      3. c)Both 1 and 2.
      4. d) Neither 1 nor 2.
    42. The well known painting “Bani Thani “ belongs to the:
      1. a)Bundi School.
      2. b)Jaipur School.
      3. c)Kangra School.
      4. d) Kishangarh School.
    43. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”,sometimes seen in the news?
      1. a)An Israeli Radar System.
      2. b)India’s indigenous anti-missile programme.
      3. c)An American anti-missile system.
      4. d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea.
    44. With reference to culture history of India,consider the following statements:
      1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
      2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
      3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
      4. Annamacharya kirtnas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venketshwara.
      Which of the statement is given above are correct?
      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 nor 2
    45. Which of the following are regarded as the main feature of the “Rule of Law”?

      1. Limitations of powers.

      2. Equality before law.

      3. People’s responsibility to the Government.

      4. Liberty and Civil Rights.

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. a)1 and 3 only
      2. b)2 and 4 only.
      3. c)1,2 and 4 only.
      4. d)1,2,3 and 4.
    46. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
      1. a)The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases.
      2. b)The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims.
      3. c)The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bill of exchange, etc.
      4. d)The metallic money in circulation in a country.
    47. If a commodity is provided free to the public by Government,then
      1. a)the opportunity cost is zero.
      2. b)the opportunity cost is ignored.
      3. c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax paying public.
      4. d)the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.
    48. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development,if

      1. a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
      2. b)agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
      3. c)Poverty and unemployment increases.
      4. d)Imports grow faster than exports.
    49. Consider the following statements:

      Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

      1. Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.

      2. Increasing the knowledge,skills level and capacities of the people of the country.

      3. Accumulation of tangible wealth.

      4. Accumulation of intangible wealth.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. a)1 and 2
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)2 and 4
      4. d)1,3 and 4
    50. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to
      1. a)Weak administrative machinery.
      2. b) Illiteracy.
      3. c)High population density
      4. d)High capital-output ratio.
    51. After the Santhal rising subsided,what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial Government?

      1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.

      2. It become illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a Non Santhal.

      Select the correct answer using a code given below:

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 nor 2
    52. Economically, one of the result of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the
      1. a)Increase in the exports of Indian handicrafts.
      2. b)Growth in the number of Indian owned factories.
      3. c)Commercialization of Indian agriculture.
      4. d)Rapid increase in urban population.
    53. If President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
      1. a)The assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
      2. b)The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
      3. c)Article 19 is suspended in that state.
      4. d)The President can make laws relating to that state.
    54. Consider the following pairs :

      Craft Heritage Of

      1. Puthukkuli Shawls – Tamilnadu

      2. Sujni embroidery – Maharashtra

      3. Uppada Jamdani Saris- Karnataka

      Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)1 and 2
      3. c)3 only
      4. d)2 and 3
    55. In which of the following area can GPS technology be used ?

      1. Mobile phones operation.

      2. Banking operations.

      3. Controlling the power grids.

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 and 3 only
      3. c)1 and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    56. Consider the following statements:

      1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.

      2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.

      3. Treasury bills offers are issued at a discount from the par value.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

      1. a)1 and 2 only
      2. b)3 only
      3. c)2 and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    57. Consider the following statements:
      1. The Earth’s magnetic fields has reserved every few hundred thousand years.
      2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 millions years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
      3. When living organism originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
      Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 and 3 only
      3. c)1 and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    58. The terms “WannaCry , Petya and Eternal Blue” sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to
      1. a)Exoplanets.
      2. b)Cryptocurrency.
      3. c)Cyber attacks
      4. d)Mini Satellites.
    59. With references to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?

      1. Avoiding the monoculture practices.

      2. Adopting minimum tillage.

      3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops.

      4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface.

      5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations.

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. a)1, 3 and 4.
      2. b)2, 3, 4 and 5.
      3. c)2, 4 and 5.
      4. d)1, 2, 3 and 5.
    60. The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of discussion of

      1. a)Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many part of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
      2. b)Fears of possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
      3. c)Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many part of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
      4. d)Mankind’s overexploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollutions and world climate change.
    61. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) , consider the following statements :
      1) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
      2) Geosynchronous covers entire India and about 5500 sq. Km beyond its border.
      3) India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
      Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
      1. a)1 only
      2. b)1 and 2 only
      3. c)2 and 3 only
      4. d)none
    62. Consider the following phenomenon:
      1) Light is affected by gravity.
      2) The universe is constantly expanding.
      3) Matter wraps its surrounding space- time.
      Which of the above is/are prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory Of Relativity, often discussed in media ?
      1. a)1 and 2 only
      2. b)3 only
      3. c)1 and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    63. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM Mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements: 1) GM Mustard has the genes of the soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
      2) GM Mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
      3) GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
      Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
      1. a)1 and 3 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)2 and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    64. Consider the following pairs:
      Term sometimes
      seen in news Context/Topic
      1) Belle II – Artificial Intelligence
      experiment
      2) Blockchain – Digital/
      Technology Cryptocurrency
      3) CRISPR – Cas9 – Particle Physics
      Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
      1. a)1 and 3 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)2 and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    65. Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization” ?

      1. a)Increased Plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
      2. b)Increased temperature of the earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
      3. c)Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
      4. d)Adaptation of living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
    66. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places and order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly.

      In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?

      1. a)Border Gateway Protocol
      2. b)Internet Of Things
      3. c)Internet Protocol
      4. d)Visual Private Network
    67. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements :
      1) India is largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units
      2) The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
      Which of the following statements given above is/are correct ?
      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 nor 2
    68. The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were

      1. a)Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
      2. b)sugar, salt, zinc and Lead
      3. c)Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
      4. d)Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium.
    69. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha ?

      1. a)Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
      2. b)Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
      3. c)Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
      4. d)Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops.
    70. Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948?

      1. a)B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C George
      2. b)Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N Roy
      3. c)C.P Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
      4. d)Ashok Mehta, T.S Ramanujan and G.G Mehta
    71. With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to:

      1. a)Buddhism
      2. b)Jainism
      3. c)Vaishnavism
      4. d)Shaivism
    72. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements : 1) White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
      2) Red Sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza in Lucknow.
      Which of the following statements given above is/are correct ?
      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 nor 2
    73. Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about Diamonds and diamond mines in India ?

      1. a)Francois Bernier
      2. b)Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
      3. c)Jean de Thevenot
      4. d)Abbe Barthelemy Carre
    74. With reference to the Indian History, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world ?
      1. a)Avalokiteshvara
      2. b)Lokesvara
      3. c)Maitreya
      4. d)Padmapani
    75. Which of the following statements do not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley ?
      1. a)To maintain a large standing army at others expense
      2. b)To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
      3. c)To secure a fixed income for the company
      4. d)To establish British paramountcy over the Indian states
    76. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India ?
      1) Charter Act of 1813
      2) General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
      3) Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
      Select the correct answer using the code given below:
      1. a)1 and 2 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)1 and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    77. Which of the following is an Artificial Lake ?
      1. a)Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
      2. b)Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
      3. c)Nainital (Uttarakhand)
      4. d)Renuka ( Himachal Pradesh)
    78. With the reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements :

      1) It is flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

      2) It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and Digital Literacy.

      3) It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

      1. a)1 and 3 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)2 and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    79. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha” ?
      1. a)All India Home Rule League
      2. b)Hindu Mahasabha
      3. c)South Indian Liberal Federation
      4. d)The Servants of India Society
    80. Which among the following events happened earliest?
      1. a)Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj
      2. b)Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan
      3. c)Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath
      4. d)Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination
    81. Which of the is/are the possible consequences of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?

      1) Decreased salinity in the water.

      2) Pollution of groundwater

      3) Lowering of the water label.

      Select the correct answer using the code below:

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 and 3 only
      3. c)1 and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    82. With reference to agriculture soils consider the following statements:

      1) A high content of organic matter drastically reduces its water boiling capacity.

      2) Soil does not play role in the sulphur cycle.

      3) Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. a)1 and 2 only
      2. b)3 only
      3. c)1 and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    83. The Partnership for Action Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

      1. a)The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
      2. b)The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio De Janeiro.
      3. c)The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
      4. d)The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi.
    84. “3D Printing” has applications in which of the following?
      1) Preparation of confectionery items
      2) MAnufacture of bionic cars
      3) Automotive industry
      4) Data processing technologies
      select the correct answer using the code given below;
      1. a)1,3 and 4 only
      2. b)2,3 and 4 only
      3. c)1 and 4 only
      4. d)1,2,3,4 and 5
    85. Consider the following statements;
      1) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
      2) Barren Island lies about 14o kms cast of Great Nicobar.
      3) The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
      Which of the statement given below is/are correct?
      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 and 3 only
      3. c)3 only
      4. d)1 and 3
    86. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?
      1. a)Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
      2. b)It tends to reduce the widely biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
      3. c)Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
      4. d)None of the above.
    87. Consider the following statements:
      1) Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
      2) More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
      3) Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyls than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
      1. a) 1 and 2 only
      2. b)3 only
      3. c)1 and 3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3
    88. “Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by
      1. a)The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
      2. b)The UNEP Secretariat
      3. c)The UNFCCC Secretariat
      4. d)The World Meteorological Organization.
    89. With the reference to educational institutions during rule in India, consider the following pairs:

      Institution Founder

      1. Sanskrit College William Jones

      at Banaras

      2. Calcutta Madras Warren Hastings

      3. Fort William Arthur Wellesley

      College

      Which of the pairs given below is/are correct?

      1. a)1 and 2
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)1 and 3
      4. d)3 only
    90. Consider the following pairs:
      Regions sometimes Country
      mentioned in news
      1. Catalonia Spain
      2. Crimea Hungary
      3. Mindanao Philippines
      4. Oromia Nigeria
      Which of the pairs given below above are correctly matched?
      1. a)1,2 and 3
      2. b)3 and 4 only
      3. c)1 and 3 only
      4. d)2 and 4 only
    91. Consider the following events:

      1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.

      2. India’s then largest bank,”Imperial Bank of India” was renamed “State Bank of India” .

      3. Air India was nationalized and became the national carrier.

      4. Goa became a part of independent India.

      Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

      1. a)4-1-2-3
      2. b)3-2-1-4
      3. c)4-2-1-3
      4. d)3-1-2-4
    92. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statements?
      1. a)Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendments to the Constitution.
      2. b)Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State policy in Part IV
      3. c)Article 21 and the freedom guaranteed in Part III
      4. d)Article 24 and the provision under the 44th Amendments to the Constitution.
    93. Consider the following:

      1) Area nut

      2) Barley

      3) Coffee

      4) Finger millet

      5) Groundnut

      6) Sesamum

      7) Turmeric

      The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?

      1. a)1,2,3 and 7 only
      2. b)2,4,5 and 6 only
      3. c)1,3,4,5 and 6 only
      4. d)1,2,3,4,5,6 and 7
    94. In which of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
      1. a)Arunachal Pradesh
      2. b)Manipur
      3. c)Meghalaya
      4. d)Nagaland
    95. With the reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
      1) PSLVs launch the satellite useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
      2) Satellites launched by PSLVs appear to remain permanently fixed in the first same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
      3) GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
      Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 and 3 only
      3. c)1 and 2
      4. d)3 only
    96. With the references to the governance of the public sector banking in India, considering the following statements:

      1) Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

      2) To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate Banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.

      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 only
      3. c)Both 1 and 2
      4. d)Neither 1 nor 2
    97. Consider the following items:
      1) Cereal grains hulled
      2) Chicken eggs cooked
      3) Fish processed and canned
      4) Newspaper containing advertising material
      Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
      1. a)1 only
      2. b)2 and 3 only
      3. c)1,2 and 4 only
      4. d)1,2,3 and 4
    98. Consider of the following statements:

      1) The Definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights, 2006.

      2) For the first time in India, Baigas have been Habitat Rights.

      3) Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitives and Vulnerable Tribal Groups is any part of India.

      Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

      1. a)1 and 2 only
      2. b)2 and 3 only
      3. c)3 only
      4. d)1, 2 and 3
    99. Consider the following:
      1) Birds
      2) Dust blowing
      3) Rain
      4) Wind blowing
      Which of the above plant diseases:
      1. a)1 and 3 only
      2. b)3 and 4 only
      3. c)1,2 and 4 only
      4. 1,2,3 and 4
    100. With references to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:

      1) “The National Programme for Organic Production”(NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry Of the Rural Development.

      2) “The Agricultural and Processed and Products Export Development Authority”(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.

      3) Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.

      Which of the following given above is/are correct?

      1. 2)1 and 2 only
      2. b)2 and 3 only
      3. c)3 only
      4. d)1,2 and 3

    Check your rank

    To check your rank based on your score click the ‘Check your rank’ button given above.

    How IAS Toppers Prepared for Mains Ebook download

    UPSC Prelims Answer Key – GS Paper 2 (All Sets)

    Click here to download full table

    Question NoSET ASET BSET CSET D
    1DAB
    2DABB
    3ADCC
    4ADAB
    5CCCB
    6DABB
    7BA DA
    8ABBC
    9BDBC
    10DBBB
    11CBA
    12CCB
    13BDBA
    14BDDD
    15CDAA
    16CAD
    17CDDD
    18ADCA
    19DBAA
    20CAA C
    21ACBD
    22BDDB
    23CCBA
    24AB B
    25CCD
    26BBDC
    27DDDD
    28BADC
    29BCAB
    30BCDC
    31BBDB
    32CCBD
    33BCAA
    34BCBC
    35BBBC
    36CBCB
    37BCBC
    38BCBA
    39BCBB
    40AAAC
    41CDCA
    42CCCC
    43BBB
    44ADAD
    45BABB
    46AAAB
    47DCDB
    48ADAB
    49CBCC
    50DADB
    51CBCD
    52B DB A
    53CBCD
    54BBBD
    55DCDC
    56ABAA
    57CBCA
    58CBCB
    59BABD
    60CCCB
    61DCC
    62ABC
    63DABD
    64DBBD
    65CACD
    66ADCA
    67A ACD
    68BAAD
    69DBDB
    70BCCA
    71AC
    72CDC
    73DBAB
    74DDAB
    75DBCC
    76ABDC
    77DBBC
    78DBAA
    79BCBD
    80ABDC

    Important Dates Related to UPSC 2018 Answer Key

    Key EventsDate
    UPSC Preliminary ExaminationJune 3, 2018
    Preliminary ResultsMid-July 2018 (Expected)
    Preliminary Answer key is releasedUPSC releases the official UPSC answer key only after announcing the final recommended list

    Estimated Cut-off

    Below is the predicted cut-off marks for the current year.

    CategoryCut-off
    General 94 ± 3
    OBC91 ± 3
    SC79 ± 3
    ST77 ± 3

    Previous Year UPSC Official Cut off Marks

    Category2017 Cut off2016 Cut off2015 Cut off
    General105.34116107.34
    OBC102.66110.66106
    SC88.6699.3494
    ST88.669691.34
    PH 185.3475.3490.66
    PH 261.3472.6676.66
    PH 340.004040

    Marking Scheme for IAS Exam

    In Prelims, every question holds two marks; thus if an examinee answers a question correctly, they will be rewarded with two marks. For every wrong answer, UPSC deducts one-third of the question’s mark. For example, if an examinee attempts 79 questions out of which 64 questions are correct but 15 wrong, then his expected score would be (64×2 – 15×0.67), i.e., 128 – 10 = 118 marks.

    Calculation of Score in IAS 2018 

    Using this year’s IAS Answer Key, you can easily match the number of right and wrong answers. The exact score can be calculated with the help of UPSC Answer Key as shown below.

    SpecificationsMarking Scheme
    For correct answerGS/CSAT Paper I = +2
    GS/CSAT Paper II = + 2.5
    For wrong answer1/3 marks (deducted)
    Total marks of exam400 (Each paper will carry 200 marks)
    Aggregate scoreMarks obtained in Paper 1 (After deducting for wrong answers)

    Note: GS Paper 2 is not included for Merit calculation

    Current and Previous Years’ Prelims Question Papers

    To enhance your skills and ace the Prelims exam, you must study and learn previous years question papers. The IAS examination question paper will help you get a better understanding of the type of the questions asked in the examination.

    Click here to practice IAS Previous Question Papers

    Previous Year’s Answer Key

    UPSC releases the IAS Answer Key at least a month after the final result. The UPSC Answer Key is available for all sets of papers, i.e., GS I and GS II. Applicants can download UPSC Prelims 2018 Answer Key to analyse their answers marked in the OMR sheet and determine their expected scores. Applicants can view the UPSC Prelims 2017 Answer Key prepared by NeoStencil to assess their performance for a better score.

    IAS Exam Pattern

    You can find the exam pattern for UPSC IAS (Prelims and Mains) in the following table:

    • The UPSC Civil services or IAS Prelims exam pattern is categorised into two mandatory papers with a total of 400 Marks.
    UPSC Prelims PapersTotal Number of questionsTotal MarksMark for each correct answerNegative Mark for each incorrect answerTotal Duration
    General Studies Paper-I100200+2-0.662 hours
    CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test) Paper – II80200+2.5-0.832 hours

    IAS Result and Cut Off

    UPSC declares the result of IAS 2018 examination in the form of a PDF file. The IAS Result 2018 will be announced in three stages – Prelims, Mains and Final. The IAS Prelims result will tentatively be declared in July 2018 announcing the candidates shortlisted for the Mains exam. The total marks obtained by a candidate in the preliminary exam will be calculated out of 400 marks. However, candidates need to acquire qualifying marks of 33% in GS/CSAT Paper II. UPSC will prepare a merit list on the grounds of marks obtained in Paper I and Paper II.

    The cut-off for IAS is the minimum marks required by a candidate to qualify the exam for next level of recruitment procedure. UPSC will declare the cut-off after concluding the selection process. The cut-off will be implemented at every stage of recruitment – Prelims, Mains and Personal Interview. Only those who will secure the cut-off will be selected for different services.

    Article last updated on

    110 responses on "UPSC 2018 Prelims Answer Key"

    1. Hi,

      Please can I have all the sets Question Papers (PAPER – 1 & 2 ) on my mail id ratika21@gmail.com.

      Thanks

    2. The source for the “opportunity cost” is not there. When we click the link, the same window happens in a separate tab…. Please give the source as this is the most confusing question that has different answers in various institute’s answer keys…. Thanks…

    3. @ANSUB READ QUESTION IT IS INBETWEEN -3 TO -1.SO,-3 U CANT INCLUDE

    4. Hi Sir
      I am a OBC candidate . Getting 105.24 in Paper 1 . Can I start my mains preparation.

    5. my daughter secured 109 in paper-I as per key provided by you, what are chances.

    6. In paper2 set A ques 23 ans should be (d) 0 to 9 as (-3)^2-(0)^2=9

    7. Thanks for sharing the valuable answer key.

    8. Accurate result with the provided answer sheet. It was really good.

    9. Hai Sir/Madam,
      can you explain me about the number of attempts in UPSC CSE Examination?

    10. Sir I am getting 114.56 according to ur answer key ..general…am I in safe side because I have checked with others and I am getting around 105..

    11. dear Neostencil
      getting 105.26
      obc candidate.
      should i go for mains ? kindly reply

    12. Profile photo of NeoStencil

      Thank you Rajveer,
      Keep checking the page. We will release a IAS Toppers video analysis in a while.

    13. Profile photo of rajveer2890

      Thank you for the keys. They have been most accurate of all.
      Are you going to do paper analysis also?
      I think this year paper was more tough compared to last year’s

    14. Profile photo of NeoStencil

      Hi Ankush,
      We will be releasing our Cut off for Prelims 2018 at 7:30 PM. Do check

    15. Profile photo of ankush5187

      u guys are so fast.. thankyou
      I am getting 106 (OBC). Will i clear?

    16. Hi team thanks for the score calculator page. Waiting for answer key

    17. when will be the answer keys of prelims is coming?

    18. Is answer keys of prelims is coming in your website?

      • Profile photo of NeoStencil

        Hello!

        Like every year, NeoStencil will release it’s accurate Answer Key and Cut-off prediction this year as well on June 3, on the day of the Prelims. It will be LIVE at 4:30 PM. You will get a comparative answer key of the Top 3 answer keys of India, along with a score calculator which will generate your score instantly – don’t miss it!

    19. answer keys of the prelims 2018 ?

      • Profile photo of NeoStencil

        Hello!

        Like every year, NeoStencil will release it’s accurate Answer Key and Cut-off prediction this year as well on June 3, on the day of the Prelims. It will be LIVE at 4:30 PM. You will get a comparative answer key of the Top 3 answer keys of India, along with a score calculator which will generate your score instantly – don’t miss it!

    20. When will the answer keys is coming??

    21. When will answer sheet of prelims be uploaded?

    22. when will be the answer keys going to launch??

      • Profile photo of NeoStencil

        Hello!

        We will release the Answer Key prepared by experts from our partner institutes on the day of Prelims, i.e. June 3, at 4:30 PM. You will get a comparative answer key of the Top 3 answer keys of India, along with a score calculator which will generate your score instantly – don’t miss it!

    23. Profile photo of Yogesh

      Sir, I am in SC my Gs score 90 if any chance for mains

    24. Sir getting 98 minimum mark’s belong to obc what are the chances of clearing prelims

    25. sir what if a student gets the required qualifying score in paper 2 and misses by a few marks in paper 1. is that student eligible for mains??

    26. Hello sir.i just now checked the CSAT Answers..I think 3_4 questions are varying in nature according to other institutions..

    27. Sir i got 92-94 from varoius key in sc category what can i do

    28. Profile photo of Ram

      69-70 CATEGORY PWD ORTHO. PLEASE SUGGEST WILL I QUALIFY

    29. Profile photo of MADHURA

      SIR ,I DINT ATTENDED EXAM THIS TIME BUT I NEED TO PREPARE FOR NEXT YEAR ,SO PLZ CAN U GET ME SOME GUIDELINES.

    30. Profile photo of bawadi

      i am getting 108 -110 according to various keys,gen category, any chances??? getting worried

    31. Profile photo of akshar

      Sir,
      i have secured 117.91 in paper 1 as per ur key answers.. i belong to GEN category. what r my chances??
      pls guide

    32. I m getting 120 in gs1 …
      But marks in 2nd paper varying ….66 from some keys ….69 minimum from ur key considering some mistakes in ur key…
      What should I do?

    33. Profile photo of ravinder kumar yadav

      sir i want to ask if the expected cut off is prepared based only on the relative toughness level of the paper or other factors are also considered.

    34. getting 110 – 112 general category . Is there a chance to clear

    35. Sir why are you creating a lie, when you already know last year cutoff was 116

    36. Dear neostensil…. at least some of your answers of Paper-2 are correct!! Congratulations!!
      On a serious note…. do hire better experts to solve questions. Even very basic quant questions are wrong.

    37. Profile photo of Ram

      67-68 in Paper 1 for PWD Ortho . Any chances?

    38. Dear sir i am geeting 108 marks in GS -1 , Category SC, what should be my next step now??

    39. for what are all the questions in paper 2, we don’t have negative marks

    40. excellent work. very helpful. thank you

    41. Sir ,As per neostencil key I am getting 107 marks .I comes under OBC category. Is there any chance for getting clear.

    42. Hi sir my brother getting 100+ st catogery what is his chances for clear of prelims

    43. hi can you let me know the link for paper 2 key

    44. Cutoff should be less this year….we expect 106 (+-3) marks. Rest is upto UPSC 🙂

    45. sir what will be cut off this year ?

    46. Neostencil is an awesome online website for IAS preparation. The answer key that you have released now is really really very helpful…..

    47. Thanks Anay….Let us know if you want us to double check on certain answers. All the best.

    48. Profile photo of anay sharma

      Wow! that was lightning fast 🙂 thanks so much ..especially for the sources

    49. Profile photo of NeoStencil

      Hi Students, below comments are of UPSC Prelims 2016 answer Key

    50. Hello sir,m getting around 105 general,,,is there any chance to clear it,,,

    51. Hello sir plz help me…i m getting 92+ in sc catrgory …i m still very bothered about what next..

    52. Getting around 107 – 112 for various keys.. OBC category.. let me know the possibilities.,

    53. Dear Sir,
      I’m getting 107 – 112 for various answer keys… OBC category. Please let me know the possibilities??? Too confusing state., Should i start preparing for mains?

    54. Hello Sir, I know that this is futile to ask but the uncertainity is really killing me mentally. I am a Gen Cat candidate scoring 110-114. Please advise if I really have any hope left. Thanks.

    55. Respected sir….I m getting 97.33 ( Paper 1) , Can I? ? ( ST candidate )…thanking u.

    56. 101 obc whats my chance for mains sir…confused I m

      • Profile photo of NeoStencil

        Hi Sayantan, we can understand your situation and how it can be difficult to plan your next steps at this time. You are within our range of expected cutoff so there is a chance that you will clear the prelims. In any case, currently the best strategy is to start preparing for mains as if you are going to make it. Its likely that you will. If unfortunately you don’t, then you can start preparing strongly for prelims starting January and be in a better situation for mains next year!

    57. I am getting 53 in paper 1 and 74 in paper 2 and my total for both is 127
      This is my last attempt due to my age approaching 32 in dec…should i start studying for mains or should i leave

      • Profile photo of NeoStencil

        Hi Dr. Chaitanya, the cut-off is based on the Paper 1 alone. Paper 2 is of qualifying nature and everyone must qualify in that paper with a minimum of 33% marks. From your expected scores, it seems that your chances of clearing prelims are very low.

    58. Sir i am getting 106-108 according to different keys…m having sleepless nights over this?what shud i do?

      • Profile photo of NeoStencil

        Hi Vipul, we can understand your situation and how it can be so stressful. You are within our range of expected cutoff so there is a good chance you will clear the prelims. In anycase, currently the best strategy is to start preparing for mains as if you are going to make it. Most likely you will. If unfortunately you don’t, then you can start preparing strongly for prelims starting January and be in a better situation for mains next year!

    59. my daughter secured 122 in paper-I as per key provided by various institutions. What are the cut off marks for 2016 for General category

      • Profile photo of NeoStencil

        Dear Mr. Reddy, as per the expected cut off prepared by NeoStencil and it’s partner institute, the cut off for General category in paper 1 is 105 ± 4 marks. Therefore your daughter holds a good chance to clear the exam.

        All the best!

    60. Paper – 1 -> 15 Marks
      Paper – 2 -> 90 Marks
      Total = 105 Marks

      How does cut-off gets calculated? I am really confused with internet data saying
      cutoff = 107 approx [Only & Only by Paper – 1]
      33% [Paper – 2]
      Please explain it.

    61. Hi sir, my score is 115.44 in OBC category. Please give me some idea about whether I’ll clear the prelims or not. Some are saying they are scoring 125-130 ans some even 140. I’m losing my night’s sleep hearing such marks. Please reply.

    62. Where is paper 2 answer key 2016?

    63. thanks for the explanation/sources

    64. scoring 116….what cud be the cutoff this yr..was paper tough?

    65. I am scoring 95-105 sc cat. Wat are my chances?

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