# UPSC 2019 Prelims Answer Key

UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2019 is now LIVE!

Every year, NeoStencil along with our partner Institutes and subject experts brings you the most accurate and comprehensive IAS Answer Key. We have published the IAS Prelims Answer Key 2019 with solutions for all sets.

We also have a first of its kind score calculator for you to check your score right away. How did you find the exam? Let us know in the discussion below.

## UPSC Prelims 2019 Answer Key - GS Paper 1

UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2019 for GS Paper 1 solutions is provided below in tabular form for all the sets (SET A, SET B, SET C, SET D).

We also have detailed solutions and reference links for GS Paper 1 - SET A question paper. Also, you can check the expected scores by submiting your answers in the Score Calculator to analyse your performance in UPSC Prelims 2019 exam.

### UPSC 2019 Prelims Answer Key - [All Sets - Answer Table]

Check 2019 UPSC Prelims answer key table for all sets provided below. Answer Key for 2019 Prelims question paper will be fully updated.

 Q. No SET A SET B SET C SET D 1 D D B A 2 B D B D 3 C B A A 4 A B C B 5 C B D D 6 D C A C 7 C A B A 8 A A B C 9 D A A C 10 A B B D 11 D D D B 12 A D A A 13 D C A D 14 B D D B 15 D D B B 16 A B D C 17 C B A D 18 D A C A 19 C A B A 20 A B B A 21 A D A D 22 A A D A 23 A D A A 24 B B B D 25 D D D B 26 D A C D 27 A C A A 28 D D C C 29 C C C B 30 A A D B 31 D D B C 32 D B A B 33 C C D A 34 D A B C 35 D C B B 36 B D C B 37 B C D C 38 A A A B 39 A D A C 40 B A A C 41 D A C B 42 D A B B 43 B A A A 44 B B C C 45 B D B D 46 C D B A 47 A A C B 48 A D B B 49 A C C A 50 B A C B 51 C B D D 52 B B D B 53 A A B C 54 C C B A 55 B D B C 56 B A C D 57 C B A C 58 B B A A 59 C A A D 60 C B B A 61 B D D A 62 A A D A 63 D A C A 64 B D D B 65 B B D D 66 C D B D 67 D A B A 68 A C A D 69 A B A C 70 A B B A 71 A B A D 72 D A A A 73 A D A D 74 B B B B 75 D B D D 76 C C D A 77 A D A C 78 C A D D 79 C A C C 80 D A A A 81 D C D D 82 A B A D 83 A A D B 84 D C B B 85 B B D B 86 D B A C 87 A C C A 88 C B D A 89 B C C A 90 B C A B 91 B A D D 92 B D B D 93 A A C C 94 C B A D 95 D D C D 96 A C D B 97 B A C B 98 B C A A 99 A C D A 100 B D A B

## UPSC Prelims 2019 Score Calculator - GS Paper 1

How to use Score Calculator
• For every question attempted by you, choose the corresponding option which you have marked by clicking on the radio bucket on the right of every option.
• Make sure you choose the option attempted by you to ensure your accurate score.
• Once you have marked all options, fill in the form.
• Click on the 'Check Result' button.

The questions are in order as in Set A (Correct answers are highlighted in green color)

### Clcik here to know your GS Paper 1 marks using our Score Calculator

1. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.

2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
1. (a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
2. (b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agriculture land to all the landless.
3. (c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
4. (d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
1. (a) International Monetary Fund
2. (b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
3. (c) World Economic Forum
4. (d) World Bank
4. Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’ :

1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
5. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements :

1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Consider the following pairs :

1.All India Anti-Untouchability Mahatma Gandhi
League
2. All India Kisan Sabha Swami Sahajanad Saraswati
3.Self Respect Movement E.V. Ramaswami Naicker

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
7. Which one of the following is not a Harappan Site?
1. (a) Chanhudaro
2. (b) Kot Diji
3. (c) Sohgaura
4. (d) Desalpur
8. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
1. (a) Kanganahalli
2. (b) Sanchi
3. (c) Shahbazgarhi
4. (d) Sohgaura
9. Consider the following :

1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals

Which of the above is/ are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
10. With reference to forced labour(Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of tghe following statements is correct?
1. (a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
2. (b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
3. (c) The forced labourer as entitled to weekly wages.
4. (d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
11. Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
1. (a) Chalukya
2. (b) Chandela
3. (c) Rashtrakuta
4. (d) Vijayanagara
12. Consider the following statements :

1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of’ Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Consider the following statements :

1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements :

1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
2. In Lord Chelmsford’s War Conference’ , Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
15. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs :

1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru : President, All India Liberal Federation
2. K.C. Neogy : Member, The Constituent Assembly
3. P.C. Joshi : General Secretary, Communist Party of India

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
16. With reference to the Mian Tansen, which one of the following statement is not correct
1. (a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar
2. (b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu god and goddesses
3. (c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons
4. (d) Tansen invented many Ragas
17. Who among the following Mughal Emperors Shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
1. (a) Humayun
2. (b) Akbar
3. (c) Jahangir
4. (d) Shah Jahan
18. Which one of the following national parks lies completely n the Temperate alpine zone?
1. (a) Manas national park
2. (b) Namdapha national park
3. (c) Neora valley national park
4. (d) Valley of flower national park
19. Attal innovation mission is set up under the
1. (a) Department of science of technology
2. (b) Ministry of labour and employment
3. (c) NITI Ayog
4. (d) Ministry of skill development and entrepreneurship
20. On 21st June the sun
1. (a) Does not set below the horizon at the article circle
2. (b) Does not set below the horizon at Antarctic circle
3. (c) Shines vertically overhead at noon on the equator
4. (d) Shines vertically overhead at the tropic of Capricorn
21. Which one the following group of a plant domesticated in the new world’ and introduced into the old world?
1. (a) Tobaccos, cocoas, and rubber
2. (b) Tobacco cotton and rubbers
3. (c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
4. (d) Rubber coffee and wheat
22. Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lion naturally found in India only
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only

Which one of the statement given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
23. Consider the following pairs :

Famous place River

1. Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirapalli : Cauvery
3. Hampi : Malaprabha

Which of the pair given above are correctly matched
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
24. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some states than in other because
1. (a) Poverty rates vary from state to state
2. (b) Price levels vary from state to state
3. (c) Gross state product varies from state to state
4. (d) Quality of public distribution varies from state to state
25. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
1. (a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
2. (b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
3. (c) Reducing the adverse effects of the solar wind on the earth
4. (d) Reducing the global warming
26. In the context of which one of the following are the terms pyrolysis and plasma gasification mentioned?
1. (a) Extraction of earth element
2. (b) natural gas extractions technologies
3. (c) Hydrogen fuel based automobiles
4. (d) Waste to energy technologies
27. Which one of the following are Agasthyamala biosphere reserve?
1. (a) Neyyar , peppara and shendurney wildlife sanctuaries and kalakad mundanthurai tiger reserve
2. (b) Mudumalai sathayamangalam and Wayanad wildlife sanctuaries and silent valley national park
3. (c) Kaundinya gundla bhrameshwaram and papikonda wildlife sanctuaries and mukurthi national park
4. (d) Kawal and Shree Venkateshwara wildlife sanctuaries; and nagarjunasagar-srisailam tiger reserve
28. Consider the following statements:

1. Some spices of turtle are herbivores
2. Some spices of fish are herbivores
3. Some spices of marine mammals are herbivores
4. Some spices of snakes are viviparous

Which of the statement given above are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 2 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
29. Consider the following pairs :

Wildlife Naturally found in

1. Blue fined mahseer : Cauvery river
2. Irrawaddy dolphine : Chambhal river
3. Rusty spoted cates : Eastern ghats

Which one of the pair given above are correctly matched?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
30. Why is there a great concern about the microbeads’ that are released into environment?
1. (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystem
2. (b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children
3. (c) They are small enough to absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields
4. (d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants
31. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle(Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
1. (a) anti-malarial drug
2. (b) biodiesel
3. (c) pulp for paper industry
4. (d) textile fibre
32. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 3 only

4. (d) 1,2 and 3
33. Consider the following states :
1. Chattisgarh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha

With reference to the states mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
1. (a) 2-3-1-4
2. (b) 2-3-4-1
3. (c) 3-2-4-1
4. (d) 3-2-1-4
34. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of methane hydrate?

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
35. Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 1 and 4 only
4. (d) 1,2,3 and 4
36. Consider the following pairs :

Sea Bordering country
2. Black Sea Croatia
3. Caspian Sea Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea Morocco
5. Red Sea Syria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. (a) 1,2 and 4 only
2. (b) 1,3 and 4 only
3. (c) 2 and 5 only
4. (d) 1,2,3,4 and 5
37. Among the following, which one of the following is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
1. (a) China
2. (b) India
3. (c) Myanmar
4. (d) Vietnam
38. Consider the following Pairs :

Glacier River
1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri : Chenab
3. Milam : Mandakini
4. Siachen : Nubra
5. Zemu : Manas

Which of the following pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. (a) 1,2 and 4
2. (b) 1,3 and 4
3. (c) 2 and 5
4. (d) 3 and 5
39. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
1. (a) pesticides in agriculture
2. (b) preservatives in processed foods
3. (c) fruit-ripening agents
4. (d) moisturising agents in cosmetics
40. Consider the following statements:

1. Under Ramsar convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government on India in protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India
2. The Wetlands ( Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar convention.
3. The Wetlands ( Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3

41. Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry release reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 2 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
42. Which is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
1. (a) Recently discovered uranium deposits
2. (b) Tropical rain forests
3. (c) Underground cave systems
4. (d) Water reservoirs
43. In the context of the proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriced CNG(H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements : 1. The main advantage of the use of H- CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions. 2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. 3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses. 4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 4 only
4. (d) 1,2,3 and 4
44. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
1. (a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
2. (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation
3. (c) The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights
4. (d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
45. Consider the following statements :

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (b) Neither 1 nor 2
46. consider the following statements :

1. The motion to impeach a judge of the supreme court of India cannot be rejected by the speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of the impeachment of the judges of the Supreme Cout of India are given in the judges (Inquiry Act, 1968.
4. If the motion of the impeachment of a judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each house of the parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that house and by not less thantwo-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 3 only
3. (c) 3 and 4 only
4. (d) 1,3 and 4
47. The ninth Schedule was introduced in the constitution of india during the prime membership of
1. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
3. (c) Indira Gandhi
4. (d) Morarji Desai
48. Consider the following statements:

1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, india imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now india is self sufficient in coal production.

Which one of the following statements given above is/ are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
49. Consider the following statements:

1. The parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well- defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 3 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
50. Under which schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
1. (a) Third Schedule
2. (b) Fifth Schedule
3. (c) Ninth Schedul
4. (d) Twelfth Schedule
51. Consider the following statements about particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
(PVTGs) in India:

1. PVTGs reside in 18 states and one union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 92 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. (a) 1,2 and 3
2. (b) 2,3 and 4
3. (c) 1,2 and 4
4. (d) 1,3 and 4
52. The Gov With reference to the constitution of India, prohibition or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
1. (a) The decisions taken by the Election Commision of India while discharging its duties can not be challenged in any court of law.
2. (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the parliament.
3. (c) In the event of grave financial crises in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the cabinet.
4. (d) State Legislatures can not make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union legislature.
53. With reference to the legislative Assembly of a state in India, consider the following Statements:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the house at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on the particular matter, it follows the lok Sabha rule on that matter.
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
54. Consider the following statements:

1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a “protocol against the smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air”.
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the following statements given above are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 2 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
55. Consider the following statements:

1. As per recent amendment to the india Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on the forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006,bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers ( Recognition of Forest Rights) Act , 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
56. Which Article of the Constitution of India safe guards one’s right to marry the person of ones’s chice?
1. (a) Article 19
2. (b) Article 21
3. (c) Article 25
4. (d) Article 29
57. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant Varieties are not eligible to the planted in India.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1,2, and 3
58. Consider the following statements :

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

1. State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
2. Lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
59. As per the solid waste management Rules, 2016 in India , which one of the following statements is correct?
1. (a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into 5 categories.
2. (b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial township only.
3. (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
4. (d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
60. Consider the following statements:

As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules ,2018

1. If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
2. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
61. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
1. (a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
3. (c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
4. (d) National Skill Development Mission
62. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements :

1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.

2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Centre Government.

3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
63. Consider the following statements :

1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by government entities.
2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
64. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
2. (b) Deposits
3. (c) Investments
4. (d) Money at call and short notice
65. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector.
2. Increasing the government expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. (c) 2 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3 only
66. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
1. (a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
2. (b) Rajamannar Committee(1969)
3. (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
4. (d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution(2000)
67. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
1. (a) Certificate of Deposit
2. (b) Commercial Paper
3. (c) Promissory Note
4. (d) Participatory Note
68. Consider the following statements :

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Bth 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
69. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity etc. ?

1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament.
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. FInance Commission
4. FInancial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 1 , 3 and 4
3. (c) 3, 4 and 5
4. (d) 2 and 5
70. With reference to India’s Five Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
71. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements :
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3 only
72. What was the purpose of the Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
1. (a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
2. (b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments
3. (c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs 50 crore or more
4. (d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending.
73. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the
1. (a) Banks Board Bureau
2. (b) Reserve Bank of India
3. (c) Union Ministry of Finance
4. (d) Management of concerned bank
74. Consider the following statements :
1. Petroleum and National Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals of Electricty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
75. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE(Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE(Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?

1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
76. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?

1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements

Select the correct answer using the code given below
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
77. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank ‘s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index?
1. (a) Maintenance of law and order
2. (b) Paying taxes
3. (c) Registering property
4. (d) Dealing with construction permits
78. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
1. (a) The Bio-medical Waste (management and hadling) rules,1998
2. (b) The Recycled Plastic (manufacturing and usage) rules, 1999
3. (c) The e- Waste (Management and handling) rules, 2011
4. (d) The food safety and standard regulations, 2011
79. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation Of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
1. (a) Transportation cost only
2. (b) Interest cost only
3. (c) Procurement incidentals and distribution costs
4. (d) Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns
80. In the context of any country which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?
1. (a) The proportion of literates in the population
2. (b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
3. (c) The size of the population in the working age group
4. (d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
81. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements :
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
82. Considering the following statements :

1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements :

1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilsedds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 2 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
84. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
1. (a) Spices
2. (b) Fresh fruits
3. (c) Pulses
4. (d) Vegetable oils
85. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
1. (a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
2. (b) Absence of restraint
3. (c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
4. (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
86. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
1. (a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
2. (b) Encouraging indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala bonds
3. (c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
4. (d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
87. Consider the following statements :

The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat command the payment system providers that
1. They shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India.
2. They shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises
3. They shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b)1 and 2 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3 only
88. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of its from 25th May 2018
1. (a) Australia
3. (c) The Europeon Unio
4. (d) The United States of America
89. Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?
1. (a) Japan
2. (b) Russia
3. (c) The United kingdom
4. (d) The United States of America
90. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
1. (a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio
2. (b) Increase in the banking habit of the population
3. (c) Increase in the statutory liquidity
4. (d) Increase in the population of the country
91. In The context of digital technologiesfor entertainment, consider the following statements :

1. In Augumented Reality (AR), a simulated environement is created and the physical world is completely shut out.

2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from the computer are projected onto real life objects or surroundings.

3. AR allows individual to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.

4.VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 3 and 4
3. (c) 1,2 and 3
4. (d) 4 only
92. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
1. (a) fossil of a kind of dinosaurs
2. (b) an early human species
3. (c) a cave system found in North-East India
4. (d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent
93. With refernce to the recent developments in science which one of the following statements is not correct?
1. (a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
2. (b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
3. (c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
4. (d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.
94. Consider the following statements :

A digital signature is

1. An electronic record that identifies the certifies authority issuing it

2. Used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information of server on Internet.

3.an electronic method og signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
95. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?

Location identification of a person
Sleep monitoring of a person
Assisting the hearing impaired person

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
96. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years.why?

1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.\
3. It can be used to develope hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to virtual pathogens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. (a) 1,2 and 3
2. (b) 2 and 3
3. (c) 1 and 3
4. (d) 1 and 4 only
97. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the earth. What is the significance of this observation?
1. (a) ‘Híggs boson particles’ were detected.
2. (b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected
3. (c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘warmhole’ was confirmed
4. (d) It enabled the scientists to understand to ‘singularity’.
98. Which of the followings are the reasons for the occurence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

1. Genetic predisposition of some people.
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases.
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming.
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1,3 and 4
4. (d) 2,3 and 4
99. What is cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news ?
1. (a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing.
2. (b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients.
3. (c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
4. (d) A herbicidal substance syntesized in generally modified crops
100. Which of the following statements is not correct?
1. (a) Hepatits B virus is transmitted much like HIV
2. (b) Hepatits B, unlike Hepaptits C, does not have a vaccine
3. (c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV
4. (d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptomsfor many years.

## UPSC 2019 Prelims Answer Key - GS Paper 2 (CSAT)

UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2019 for GS Paper 2 updated below in tabular form for all the sets (SET A, SET B, SET C, SET D).

### UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2019 - GS Paper 2 [All Sets - Table]

Check 2019 UPSC Prelims answer key for GS Paper 2 (CSAT) table for all sets provided below. Answer Key for 2019 Prelims question paper is updated.

 Q. No SET A SET B SET C SET D 1 D B A D 2 D C D D 3 B D D A 4 B B C D 5 B B D B 6 A A A D 7 D B B D 8 C C D C 9 C C D C 10 C D A B 11 D B D B 12 B A B D 13 C A D B 14 D D D A 15 B D C D 16 B C C C 17 A D B B 18 B A B B 19 C B D B 20 C B B B 21 D D A C 22 B A D A 23 A D C D 24 A C B B 25 C B B B 26 C D B C 27 A B B B 28 D C C D 29 B B A C 30 D B D B 31 A B B B 32 D D B D 33 C B C B 34 B A B A 35 D A D D 36 B C C D 37 C C B C 38 B A B D 39 B D D A 40 B D D B 41 A D D C 42 D A D C 43 D D B D 44 C B B B 45 D D B C 46 A D A D 47 B C D B 48 C C C B 49 A B B A 50 D B D B 51 B D A C 52 B B D C 53 C A C D 54 B D B D 55 D C D B 56 C B B B 57 B B C B 58 B B B A 59 D B B D 60 D C B D 61 A A D B 62 D D B D 63 C B A A 64 B B A D 65 B C C C 66 B B C B 67 B D A D 68 D C D B 69 D B C C 70 A B C B 71 D D D B 72 B D B B 73 D D C D 74 D D D B 75 C B B A 76 C B B A 77 B B A C 78 B A B C 79 D D C A 80 B C C D

Important Dates Related to UPSC Answer Key 2019

Key Events Date
UPSC Preliminary Examination June 2, 2019
Preliminary Results Mid-July 2019 (Expected)
Preliminary Answer key is released UPSC releases the official UPSC answer key only after announcing the final recommended list

## Expected UPSC 2019 Prelims Cut-off

The expected cut off marks for UPSC Prelims 2019 exam will be updated on June 2, 2019, after analysing the question paper and inputs from our partner institutes. How did you find the paper? Let us know in the discussion below.

Category Cut-off
General 97 ± 2
OBC 95 ± 2
SC 83 ± 2
ST 82 ± 2

### Previous Years' UPSC Official Cut off Marks

 Category General OBC SC ST PH1 PH2 PH3 2018 98 96.66 84 83.34 73.34 53.34 40.00 2017 105.34 102.66 88.66 88.66 85.34 61.34 40.00 2016 116 110.66 99.34 96 75.34 72.66 40 2015 107.34 106 94 91.34 90.66 76.66 40

Marking Scheme for IAS Exam

In Prelims, every question holds two marks; thus if an examinee answers a question correctly, they will be rewarded with two marks. For every wrong answer, UPSC deducts one-third of the question s mark. Using this year's IAS Answer Key, you can easily match the number of right and wrong answers. The exact score can be calculated with the help of UPSC Answer Key as shown below.

Specifications Marking Scheme
For correct answer GS Paper I : +2
CSAT (Paper II) : + 2.5
For wrong answer 1/3 marks (deducted) (both Papers)
Total marks of exam 400 (Each paper will carry 200 marks)
Aggregate score Marks obtained in Paper 1
Note: GS Paper 2 is not included for Merit calculation

For example, if an examinee attempts 79 questions out of which 64 questions are correct and 15 wrong, then his expected score would be (64x2 - 15x0.67), i.e., 128 - 10 = 118 marks.

Current and Previous Years' Prelims Question Papers

To enhance your skills and ace the Prelims exam, you must study and learn previous years question papers. The IAS examination question paper will help you get a better understanding of the type of the questions asked in the examination.Click here to practice IAS Previous Question Papers

UPSC releases the IAS Answer Key at least a month after the final result. The UPSC Answer Key is available for all sets of papers, i.e., GS I and GS II. Applicants can download UPSC Prelims 2019 Answer Key to analyse their answers marked in the OMR sheet and determine their expected scores. Applicants can view the UPSC Prelims 2018 Answer Key prepared by NeoStencil to assess their performance for a better score.

IAS Exam Pattern

You can find the exam pattern for UPSC IAS (Prelims and Mains) in the following table:
• The UPSC Civil services or IAS Prelims exam pattern is categorised into two mandatory papers with a total of 400 Marks.
UPSC Prelims Papers Total Number of questions Total Marks Mark for each correct answer Negative Mark for each incorrect answer Total Duration
General Studies Paper-I 100 200 +2 -0.66 2 hours
CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test) Paper II 80 200 +2.5 -0.83 2 hours

IAS Result and Cut Off

UPSC declares the result of IAS 2019 examination in the form of a PDF file. The IAS Result 2019 will be announced in three stages Prelims, Mains and Final. The IAS Prelims result will tentatively be declared in July 2019 announcing the candidates shortlisted for the Mains exam. The total marks obtained by a candidate in the preliminary exam will be calculated out of 400 marks. However, candidates need to acquire qualifying marks of 33% in GS/CSAT Paper II.

UPSC will prepare a merit list on the grounds of marks obtained in Paper I and Paper II.The cut-off for IAS is the minimum marks required by a candidate to qualify the exam for next level of recruitment procedure. UPSC will declare the cut-off after concluding the selection process. The cut-off will be implemented at every stage of recruitment - Prelims, Mains and Personal Interview. Only those who will secure the cut-off will be selected for different services.
•  Follow

Options