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  • UPSC CDS 2 Answer Key 2017 | Question Paper, Answers & Cut Off

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    UPSC CDS 2017 Answer Key with Questions for Paper 1 (English) – Set D

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    Download 2017 UPSC CDS 2 Answer Key Paper 1 in PDF Format

    This is in sequence of SET D

    The option highlighted in orange color is the correct answer.

    COMPREHENSION

    Directions :

    In this section, you have few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

    Passage

    For many years, ship captains navigating the waters of Antarctica have been intrigued by sightings of emerald icebergs. Scientists have now explained their mystery. Their icebergs are turned upside down. Icebergs are blocks of ice that have broken off huge slabs of frozen snow called ice shelves. Their green appearance results from seawater that has frozen at the bottom over hundreds of years. The frozen sea water has dissolved organic matter which gives it a yellow tone and the fresh water ‘ice shelf’ above has a blue tinge. When the iceberg turns upside done, it appears green through the visual mix of yellow with the blue from below.

    1)  What is the meaning of ‘intrigued’?

    (a) Surprised

    (b) Fascinated

    (c) Muffled

    (d) Repulsed

     

    2) What are ice shelves?

    (a) They are huge pieces of chunks of ice

    (b) They are frozen sea water

    (c) They are pieces of ice which look like shelves

    (d) They are huge pieces of ice which are very old

     

    3) What are icebergs?

    (a) Huge chunks of ice floating on water

    (b) Frozen sea water

    (c) Green ice

    (d) Green yellow water below and blue above

     

    4) When the iceberg turns upside down, it appears

    (a) green

    (b) yellow

    (c) blue

    (d) white

     

    Passage

    In its simple form, science has helped man to protect himself from Nature and to overcome natural obstacles to movement. But with the advance of science, a situation has arisen in which Nature need to be protected from man. He has used Nature’s own gifts, not only of metal but even the human brain, to attack Nature. Forests are being destroyed not only to satisfy the need but to provide luxuries. The evil effects of deforestation are already making themselves clearly felt by climatic changes and soil erosion. Man has at last begun to learn that he has to protect if he wants Nature to protect him

     

    5) The use of science in its simple form has helped man to

    (a) do such things as building shelter and make carts, boats, etc.

    (b) make bombs and missiles

    (c) build factories using machinery

    (d) make planes

     

    6) Nature now needs to be protected from man because

    (a) nature has become weak

    (b) man is rapidly destroying Nature

    (c) man is cruel to animals

    (d) man has become irrational

     

    7) Forests are being destroyed in order to

    (a) provide land for agriculture

    (b) provide wood for fuel

    (c) kill dangerous animals

    (d) provide necessities as well as needless comforts and pleasures

     

    8) The evil effect of destroying Nature instead of using it is seen in

    (a) the fall in production of our factories

    (b) the fall in our standard of living

    (c) the unfavorable changes in climate

    (d) the frequent occurrence of epidemics

     

    9) Climatic changes and soil erosion are results of

    (a) scientific developments

    (b) nuclear explosion

    (c) natural calamity

    (d) deforestation

    Passage

    According to the civil laws of most countries, obedience is no longer the duty of a wife, every woman has the political right to vote, but these liberties remain theoretical as long as she does not have economic freedom. A woman supported by a man is not liberated from the male. It is through gainful employment that woman has traveled most of the distance that separated her from the male, and nothing else can guarantee her liberty in practice.

    I once heard a maidservant declare, while cleaning the stone floor of a hotel lobby, “I never asked anybody for anything; I succeeded all by myself.” She was as proud of her self-sufficiency as a Rockefeller, Ford or Birla.

    However, the mere combination of the right to vote and a job does not mean complete liberation: working, today, is not a liberty.

    A recent study of women workers in a car factory shows that they would prefer to stay in the home rather than work in the factory. The majority of women do not escape from the traditional feminine world. Their jobs at the factory do not relieve them of housekeeping burdens; they get from neither society nor their husbands, the assistance they need to become in concrete fact the equals of men.

     

    10) Which of the following helps women

    (a) The right to vote

    (b) Civil liberties

    (c) A job

    (d) Wealthy husbands

     

    11) Why does the writer talk about the maidservant in the hotel lobby?

    (a) The servants of today will one day be freed from their rich masters

    (b) A servant can become as rich as Rockefeller or Birla

    (c) Even with a low paid job women can achieve equality

    (d) Economic independence is necessary for women’s liberation

     

    12) In which paragraph does the writer say that it is revealed that some woman would not like to work in the factory?

    (a) In paragraph four

    (b) In paragraph three

    (c) I paragraph two

    (d) In paragraph one

     

    13) “These liberties” in the first paragraph refer to

    (a) The right to vote , not to obey and right to a job

    (b) The right to vote and not to obey

    (c) The rights of servants to disobey their master and the right of the master to punish them

    (d) Women’s right to vote and earn money

     

    Passage

    During the past three generations, the diseases affecting western societies have undergone dramatic changes. Polio, diphtheria, tuberculosis, commonly known as TB, are vanishing; one injection of an antibiotic often cures deadly diseases such as pneumonia or syphilis, and so many mass killers have come under control that two-thirds of all death is now associated with the diseases of old age. Those who die young are more often than not victims of accidents, violence, or suicide.

    These changes in health status are generally equated with the decrease in suffering and attributed to more or better medical care. Almost everyone believes that at least one of his friends would not be alive and well except for the skill of a doctor. But there is, in fact, no evidence of any direct relationship between this change in the pattern or nature of sickness on the one hand and the so-called progress of medicine on the other hand. These changes are the results of political technological changes. They are not related to the activities that require the preparation and status of doctors or the costly equipment in which doctors take pride. In addition, an increase in the number of new diseases in the last fifteen years are themselves the result of medical intervention. They are doctor-made or iatrogenic.

     

    14) In the western societies, the occurrences of polio, diphtheria, and tuberculosis has

    (a) increased

    (b) completely stopped

    (c) decreased

    (d) continued without changes

     

    15) More death are now associated with old age than in the past because

    (a) iatrogenic diseases are spreading faster now

    (b) deadly diseases affecting the young have been well controlled

    (c) Accidents, violence and suicide that killed many youths in the past are now under control

    (d) political and technological changes now take better care of the young than the old

     

    16) The writer probably is arguing for

    (a) stopping the practice of western medicines completely

    (b) stopping the use of costly equipment and medicines

    (c) rethinking about the successes and failures of the western medicines

    (d) giving greater attention to new, iatrogenic diseases than to the old diseases such as polio , diphtheria and pneumonia

    Passage

    Poverty is a complex problem. It is far more than an economic condition. We measure it usually in terms of income but forget that poverty embraces a whole range of circumstances, including lack of access to information and to basic services like nutritional diet, health care, and education. It results in a loss of cultural identity and destroys traditional knowledge. Poor people become marginalized and suffer from exploitation and loss of human dignity.

     

    17) Which of the following sentences comes close to the meaning of the sentence, “Poverty embraces a whole range of circumstances.”

    (a) There are lot of  angles to poverty

    (b) There are several section in the society which are poor

    (c) There are several types of poverty

    (d) Poverty is solely an economic issue

     

    18) What way do you think ‘lack of access to information’ affects poor people?

    (a) They don’t get information about how to improve their conditions

    (b) They didn’t get newspapers to read at all

    (c) They can’t go to school and read books

    (d) They don’t get information about schemes of getting ric

     

    19) What do you think ‘cultural identity’ is important?

    (a) A sense of cultural identity gives people self-respect and confidence

    (b) Cultural identity defines the character of poor people

    (c) It is important to have cultural identity to get jobs

    (d) It is useful to have cultural identity because it brings your success

     

    20) Which of the following sentences comes closest to the sentence” Poor people become marginalised”?

    (a) They are not given any benefit of nay government schemes

    (b) They are ignored by the rich people

    (c) They are the most ignored elements of the society

    (d) They are the most disposed elements of the society

     

    21) What do you think is the tone of the passage?

    (a) Objective but querulous

    (b) Descriptive and impassioned

    (c) Argumentative and critical

    (d) Objective and critical

    ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

     

    Directions :

    Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled P, Q, R, and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

    22) My unmarried aunt     is creating a lot of problems for us     who stays with us

                                                                                     P                                          Q

    because of her interfering nature in our personal lives

                                                   R

    and there is a misunderstanding among family members

                                                  S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) Q S R P

    (b) Q P S R

    (c) P Q S R

    (d) S P Q R

     

    23) No criminal proceeding      in any Court during his term of office

                                                                                            P

    whatsoever shall be initiated     or continued against the President    or a Governor

                          Q                                                              R                                              S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) Q R S P

    (b) P Q R S

    (c) Q P S R

    (d) S Q P R

     

    24) The dentist    with a severe tooth-ache     when he was brought to hospital

                                                       P                                                       Q

      extracted Manish’s tooth                      and relieved his pain

                          R                                                              S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P Q R S

    (b) Q P R S

    (c) R S P Q

    (d) R Q P S

     

    25) The actress   has been selected     as the best heroine

                                                P                                  Q

    who is the daughter of a famous male singer       of the year

                                           R                                                       S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a)  R  P   Q  S

    (b)  Q  P  S  R

    (c)   Q   S   R  Q

    (d)   Q   S   R   P

     

    26) Last summer   everyday     kept pestering a pretty girl     one persistent admirer     

                                             P                                  Q                                               R

    with phone calls

                   S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) Q R S P

    (b) R S Q P

    (c) R Q S P

    (d) P Q R S

     

    27) In many cultures      to make wishes come true    that blue has the power    people believe

                                                                     P                                                Q                                     R

    and be successful in life

                         S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P S R Q

    (b) R S P Q

    (c) R Q P S

    (d) S Q P R

     

    28) From a picnic table    through the playground   while we unpacked a basket

                                                                     P                                             Q

    we watched them laugh and leap      bulging with sandwhiches and cookies

                               R                                                                      S

    The correct sequence should b

     

    (a)   R S Q P

    (b) Q  P  R  S

    (c) R P Q S

    (d) Q S R P

     

     

    29) My father retired at the age of 68,  where he had served,   in South Carolina

                                                                                            P                                      Q

    as Pastor for 12 years,   from a Baptist Church

                         R                                  S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P R S Q

    (b) S Q P R

    (c) S P Q R

    (d) Q P R S

     

    30) The completion      it enables employees to feel a sense of accomplishment

                                                                                      P

    and makes them take pride in their work;       of high quality products

                                  Q                                                                      R

    also enhances employee satisfaction, because

                                  S

    The correct sequence should b

    (a)  P Q R S

    (b)  R Q P S

    (c)  P S R Q

    (d) R S P Q

     

    31) But, Kuala Lumpur     where modern Malaya executives    but will never miss Friday prayers

                                                                             P                                                                 Q

    might have a cellular phone in hand,   is a city firmly rooted in tradition

                                 R                                                                    S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a)  R Q S P

    (b)  S P R Q

    (c) R P S Q

    (d) S Q R P

     

    32) Perhaps the most significant factor     is a failure of planning and

                                                                                                       P

    in the growth of all metropolitan crimes,    governance in the urban sprawl

                                 Q                                                                  R

    including crimes against the elderly,

                                 S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a)   Q  S   P  R

    (b)   P  R  Q  S

    (c)   Q   R   P  S

    (d)   P  S  Q  R

     

    33) He said that    a small college    he’d rather go to    not studying at all   instead of

                                             P                              Q                                R                            S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) Q  S  P  R

    (b) P   R  Q  S

    (c) Q  P  R  S

    (d) Q  P  S  R

     

    34) Teaching a child    since there  are few    is becoming  difficult  and expensive

                                                             P                                                  Q

    open ponds around    how to swim

                 R                                  S

    The correct sequence should be

     

    (a) S   Q   P  R

    (b) Q   R   S  P

    (c)  S  R  Q  P

    (d) P   R  Q  S

     

    35) The doctor  able to find out   what had caused   the food poisoning   had not been

    P                              Q                                  R                             S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) S  P  R  Q

    (b) P  R  Q  S

    (c) P  R  S  Q

    (d) S  P  Q  R

     

    36) The officer      was suspended    being corrupt   from service     before his dismissal

                                                P                           Q                          R                              S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a)  Q  P  S  R

    (b)   Q  P  R  S

    (c)  R  S  Q  P

    (d) R  S  P  Q

     

    37) She gave     her old coat      to  a  beggar         the one with the brown fur on it      shivering with cold

                                         P                        Q                                                  R                                              S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P  R   Q  S

    (b) S  Q  P  R

    (c) P  Q  R  S

    (d) R  P  Q  S

     

    38) The medical teams   at the ground said that the injured    by the surging crowds,

                                                                             P                                                    Q

    included women and children     who were trampled

                             R                                             S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P R Q S

    (b) P Q R S

    (c) Q P R S

    (d) P S Q R

     

    39) He at the hurdles on his way    who has his eyes    does not look     fixed  on the goal

                                P                                             Q                              R                            S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P  Q  R  S

    (b) S  R  P  Q

    (c) Q  S  R  P

    (d) R  Q  P  S

     

    40) We do not know when   but we know    the exact date of his death    for certain

                                                                 P                                     Q                                   R

    Shakespeare was born

                   S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a)  S  P   R  Q

    (b) P   Q  R  S

    (c) P  S  Q  R

    (d) S  R  Q  P

     

    41) The purpose is to advance knowledge   the two have to work together   and disseminate it

                                      P                                                                  Q                                            R

    at university  is essentially a community of students and teachers

                                                                 S

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) S  R  Q  P

    (b) S  P  Q  R

    (c) P  Q  R  S

    (d) S  Q  P  R

     

    WORD SUBSTITUTION

    Directions :

    For the expression which has been underlined in each of the following sentences, choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which most nearly expresses its meaning.

     

    42) The institution decided to given Mrs. Roy’s job to her son not because she was a social worker, but because she had died in harness.

    (a) died after retirement

    (b) died before retirement

    (c) died while riding a horse

    (d) died for a great cause

     

    43) Your ambition should be in consonance with your capabilities

    (a) parallel to

    (b) in accordance with

    (c) in harmony with

    (d) in tune with

     

    44) I could not go up in life for want of proper guidance

    (a) for lack of

    (b) for need of

    (c) for the desire of

    (d) for the necessity of

     

    45) Though he was arrogant , I could not dispense with his services.

    (a) terminate

    (b) align with

    (c) claim

    (d) disregard with

     

    46) In spite of his work, he was made a scapegoat for the failure of the project.

    (a) freed from any responsibility for

    (b) suspected of causing

    (c) blamed without reason for

    (d) was severely punished for

     

    47) If food supply fails to keep pace with population , civilization will collapse

    (a) to grow along with

    (b) to walk side by side

    (c) to gain momentum

    (d) to move at the same speed as

     

    ANTONYMS

    Directions :

    Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

    48) Whether the rewards are in commensurate with the efforts or not, a society will always have workaholics and the shirk work groups.

    (a) disproportionate

    (b) equal to

    (c) matched

    (d) unparalleled

     

    49) Wars leave behind a large number of emaciated soldiers in the camps of both the victorious and the vanquished

    (a) hefty

    (b) thin

    (c) disillusioned

    (d) determined

     

    50) There was a mammoth gathering to listen to the leader.

    (a) negligible

    (b) tiny

    (c) poor

    (d) large

     

    51) The audience thoroughly enjoyed the hilarious drama

    (a) amusing

    (b) delightful

    (c) serious

    (d) momentous

     

    52) The writer’s erudition in science is revealed in every page of the book.

    (a) unenlightened

    (b) ignorance

    (c) intelligence

    (d) hollowness

     

    53) The seminar which Ravi organised proved to be momentous event.

    (a) trivial

    (b) futile

    (c) vain

    (d) useless

     

    54) The question is not whether the court vindicates him with regard to his involvement in the case, but how he feels about it.

    (a) reprieves

    (b) absolves

    (c) indicts

    (d) summons

     

    55) In those days many monarchs enjoyed vast ecclesiastical powers

    (a) permanent

    (b) temporal

    (c) contemporary

    (d) constitutional

     

    FILL IN THE BLANK

    Directions :

    Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select which ever word or group of words yo consider most appropriate for the bank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    56) With the less rapid expansion of the economy, we should make ______ progress toward stable price levels.

    (a) detailed

    (b) substantial

    (c) definite

    (d) infinite

     

    57) At times he gets very angry, and then no one can ______ him

    (a) prevent

    (b) humour

    (c) mollify

    (d) satisfy

     

    58) Many people today have fallen into utter confusion of values with the result that they cannot ______ the good from the bad

    (a) divide

    (b) differentiate

    (c) see

    (d) alter

     

    59) If Mohan ______ at 5 a.m., he would not have missed the train

    (a) started

    (b) had started

    (c) would start

    (d) has started

     

    60) His property was divided ______ his daughters and sons.

    (a) between

    (b) among

    (c) from

    (d) with

     

    61) His persistence in his misdemeanours has lowered him in the ______ of everyone who knows him.

    (a) eyes

    (b) estimation

    (c) estimate

    (d) esteern

     

    62) The clouds of suspicion will clear ______ soon

    (a) up

    (b) away

    (c) off

    (d) by

     

    63) The teachers said that they were no longer prepared to ______ the ways of the new Headmaster.

    (a) put over with

    (b) put on with

    (c) put up with

    (d) put up to

     

    64) ______ the construction of new housing units at the rate of one every month, there is still a shortage of accomodation

    (a) Through

    (b) Despite

    (c) By

    (d) For

     

    65) Democracy requires the equal right of all to the development of such capacity for good as nature has ______ them with

    (a) presented

    (b) endowed

    (c) fortified

    (d) replenished

     

    ORDERING OF SENTENCES

    Directions :

    In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6 . The middle for sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

    66) S1 : Egypt lies in the north- east corner of Africa.

    S6 : The whole country depends on the water of the Niles

    P : Most of it is desert or semi – desert

    Q : It has very little rainfall

    R : It is four times as big as Great Britain in size.

    S : Only a twenty-fifth of the total area is cultivable.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P Q  R S

    (b) S R P Q

    (c) R P S Q

    (d) Q P R S

     

    67)  S1  : In mechanical efforts , you improve by perpetual practice.

    S6 : There is neither excuse nor temptation for the latter.

    P : He cannot go on shooting wide or falling short, and still fancy that he is making progress.

    Q : This is so because the object to be attained is a matter of actual experiment in which you either succeed or fail

    R : He must either correct his aim, or persevere in his error with his eyes open

    S : If a man aims at a mark with bow and arrow, he must either hit it or aim it.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a)  P S Q R

    (b) R P S Q

    (c) S Q R P

    (d) Q S P R

     

    68)  S1 : Isaac’s mother married again

    S6 : He had a set of little tools and saw of various sizes made by himself.

    P : But he was known to be very clever at making things.

    Q : She sent him to school.

    R : Isaac was left to the care of his good old grandmother.

    S : In his early years Isaac did not appear to be a very bright student.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) R  Q  S P

    (b) Q  R  S  P

    (c) S  Q  R  P

    (d) R  P  Q  S

     

    69) S1 : The examination system must be regarded as the chief wrecker of young nerves.

    S6 : If I become a Vice-Chancellor, my first act would be to abolish all examination in my university

    P : It makes me jump out of the bed, all in a sweat.

    Q : It does this by building up a tension, for a part of the year, all through one’s youth.

    R : And after four decades, the same nervousness sometimes recurs to me in nightmares

    S : I remember the desperate nervousness that used to grip me from January to April every year.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) R P Q S

    (b) R S P Q

    (c) R Q P S

    (d) Q S R P

     

    70) S1 : History is a subject that is so little valued today that it is almost impossible to win world fame as a historian ; yet that is exactly what Toynbee was able to.

    S6 : Among the civilizations that he studied was that of India.

    P : We usually think of history as a chronological account of the development of various states and empires under ruler.

    Q : Toynbee’s view of history was different

    R : He tries to find the pattern behind the birth, growth and decay of civilization.

    S : Though he used the recorded history of mankind, but he was interested not merely in the chronology of single states or group but in the rise and fall of whole civilizations.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P  S  Q  R

    (b) Q  S  P  R

    (c) S  Q  R  P

    (d) P  Q  S  R

     

    71)  SI  : Science first began to become important after A.D. 1500

    S6 : Men read them, became inquisitive again, and began to want to find things out.

    P : As a result of this , books came to be circulated.

    Q : During the Middle Ages the coming of Science was hindered by the Church

    R : In the middle of the fifteenth century , however , the Turks captured the city of Constantinople and the Greek books were scattered far and wide.

    S : It considered free inquiry into the nature of things to be wicked.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P  Q  S  R

    (b) Q  S  R  P

    (c) S  R  P  Q

    (d) R  P  Q  S

     

    72) S1 : Phatik was a mischievous boy of fourteen

    S6 : Ultimately he distinguished himself as a scholar.

    P : It was then that Phatik’s uncle offered to take the boy to Kolkata.

    Q : She was much worried about his education

    R : His mother found it difficult to bring him up.

    S : Away from his home Phatik became sober and industrious

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P Q R S

    (b) S R Q P

    (c) R S P Q

    (d) R Q P S

    73) S1 : Whenever I met Baba Amte I was reminded of an anecdote my grandmother used to tell me

    S6 : He forgot that he had made it.

    P : He once made an idol of God

    Q : As the idol was nearing completion, the sculptor was becoming more and more withdrawn into himself.

    S : There was a great sculpto.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P Q R S

    (b) S R P Q

    (c) S P Q R

    (d) Q P R S

     

    74) S1 : Ross sent an account of his work, together with slide and specimens to Manson.

    S6 : Ross was elected a fellow of the Royal Society in1901

    P : They produced a profound sensation

    Q : In July 1898, Manson described Ross’s results to the British Medical Association.

    R : The President of the Royal Society came to Manson’s house and inspected Ross’s materials and said that ‘it was of remarkable interest and value’.

    S : When Manson had finished, the whole audience rose and cheered.

    (a) R S P Q

    (b) P S R Q

    (c) Q P S R

    (d) S P Q R

     

    75) S1  : Civilization dawned when early man learnt how to produce heat and energy by burning wood.

    S6 : When they have been used, they cannot be replaced.

    P : Then steam was used to produce electricity.

    Q : In this century great use has been made of oil and natural gas and the use of atomic reactors also has provided another source of energy.

    R : Much later, the first industrial revolution was based on the production of steam by burning coal.

    S : But none of these fuels is renewable

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P R Q S

    (b) R Q S P

    (c) R P Q S

    (d) R P S Q

     

    76) S1 : Ghost is a subject which baffles everyone everywhere throughout  the world.

    S6 : Yet it is a subject which has held people spellbound and the belief in them continues to flourish

    P : But human beings have always been curious to know more about them.

    Q : Needless to say, such attempts have proved to be useless

    R : There have been attempts even to photograph these creatures of darkness.

    S : Even after the advancement of science, the reality of ghosts remains a mystery till this day.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) Q  R  P  S

    (b) S  Q  P  R

    (c) S  P  R  Q

    (d) S  Q  R  P

     

    77) S1 : There have been two schools of thought which deal with the errors of learners.

    S6 : Both views are popular today but the second is gaining ground fast.

    P : The philosophy of the second school is that errors are natural and they will occur in any learning

    Q : So errors, they say, is a sign of faulty teaching methods.

    R : The first school maintains that if teaching methods are perfect, errors will never occur.

    S : They argue that we should concentrate on how to deal with errors, instead of on method of teaching

    The correct sequence should be

    (a)  Q S R P

    (b) P S Q R

    (c) Q P S R

    (d) R Q P S

     

    78) S1 : Down the stair way of the Holiday Inn hotel, I enter the conference hall.

    S6 : Some are leaning against the sidewall

    P : I take a seat in the back row as more chairs are quietly slipped in for late corners

    Q : The hall is already packed with delegates.

    R : Still quite a few people are left standing

    S : Most of the delegates are executives of Indian or Indo-US companies

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) S Q  R P

    (b) P R Q S

    (c) S R Q P

    (d) Q S P R

     

    79) S1 : A sportsman is noted for his sense of discipline

    S6 : Once discipline is accrued in the play field, it can be applied and practised in other spheres of life

    P : The first lesson in discipline is to win without pride and to lose without bitterness

    Q : One is no longer swayed by the sudden gusts of passion

    R : Then, one must learn that error or selfishness will disgrace and endanger the rest.

    S : A sense of equanimity brings order and method into the life of the people.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) Q P R S

    (b) R P S P

    (c) P Q S R

    (d) P R S Q

     

    80) S1 : Mr. and Mrs. Robert went home late last night

    S6 : Mr. Robert rushed to the police station immediately

    P : Somebody had broken open the lock

    Q : To their dismay they found all their things missing.

    R : They got into the house with a lot of fear

    S : When they reached home they found the front door open

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) R S P Q

    (b) S P R Q

    (c) Q S R P

    (d) R Q P S

     

    81) S1 : The miseries of the world cannot be cured by physical help only

    S6 : Then alone will misery ease in the world.

    P : Let men have light, let them be strong and educated

    Q : No amount of physical help will remove them completely

    R : Until man’s nature changes, his physical needs will always rise, and miseries will always be felt.

    S : The only solution is to make mankind enlightened.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) Q P R S

    (b) R Q S P

    (c) S P Q R

    (d) P Q R S

     

    82) S1 : Aristotle worked under limitations

    S6 : The age was not a period of experiment

    P : Physical events were mostly attributed to the intervention of God.

    Q : There had been little industrial invention in Greece, perhaps because slave labour was cheap and plentiful

    R : The only equipment he had for his study was a ruler and compass and some crude instruments.

    S : The facts on which modern theories of science have been based had not been discovered.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) R P Q S

    (b) R S P Q

    (c) Q S R P

    (d) S Q R P

     

    83) S1 : The bus sped along the road

    S6 : The dog wailed for a long time

    P : But the bus could stop only after covering a few yards.

    Q : It injured the dog in the leg.

    R : The driver applied the brake

    S : Suddenly a stray dog ran on to the middle of the road

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) S P R Q

    (b) S R P Q

    (c) R P Q S

    (d) P R S Q

     

    84) S1 : The status of women in our country is, on the whole , far from high

    S6 : Education can lift women out of the depths of misery and ignorance into which they have sunk.

    P : But the plight of women in villages is still miserable

    Q : The educated women in cities enjoy equality with the men folk.

    R : The movement for the freedom and right of women has certainly been steadily gaining momentum.

    S : Their education has been thoroughly neglected.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) R P Q S

    (b) R Q P S

    (c) S Q P R

    (d) S P Q R

     

    85) S1 : Hieun-tsang became a Buddhist monk at the age of twelve and soon discovered that the Buddhist texts available in China were insufficient.

    S6 : But he was on a quest and returned after a while to his motherland with a rich collection of texts, documents and relics

    P : Wherever he went, he was asked by the local rulers and monks to stay in the place.

    Q : He entered India through Kashmir, where he spent some time in Srinagar

    R : He therefore decided to go on a pilgrimage to India to collect further material

    S : From India, he attempted to go to Ceylon, but gave up the attempt.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P Q S R

    (b) R S P Q

    (c) Q S R P

    (d) R Q S P

    SPOTTING ERRORS

    Directions :

    Each item in this section with three underlined parts labelled (a) , (b) and (c) . Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response  in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c) . If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

    96) It is identification with the audience

                                        (a)

    that makes one come home from the play so much more

                                                  (b)

    satisfied than one ever is after merely passive enjoyment of the show    No error

                                                         (c)                                                                                                 (d)

     

    97) CV Raman was one of the greatest sons of India         who has earned everlasting fame

                                               (a)                                                                                  (b)

    for scientific researches                          No error

                      (c)                                                   (d)

     

    98) This box    is heavy than    the other one     No error

                (a)                  (b)                   (c)                        (d)

     

    99) The      writer does not have the freedom      to choose his own themes,

                                              (a)                                                             (b)

    society thrusts  them on him                  No error

                        (c)                                                 (d)

     

    100) No one knows   as to why he did it,  or who was behind his doing it   No error

                     (a)                           (b)                                           (c)                                     (d)

     

    101) How long   you  are     in this profession ?    No error

                   (a)             (b)                     (c)                            (d)

     

    102) I know that    ignorance is not bliss     yet I am ignorant in many things.    No error

                   (a)                           (b)                                                     (c)                                       (d)

     

    103) You are     just sixteen years old,     isn’t it ?    No error

                  (a)                       (b)                             (c)               (d)

     

    104) The old widower,     living in remittances from his sons,    could not make both ends meet    

                      (a)                                                (b)                                                                   (c)

    No error

       (d)

     

    105) Debate about biotechnology and genetic engineering    is under way around the world,

                                                            (a)                                                                       (b)

    and India is fully engrossed with the discussion.     No error

                                          (c)                                                                    (d)

     

    106) I like to     listen the song of the nightingale     in the evening    No error

                 (a)                                     (b)                                           (c)                    (d)

     

    107) Each student      from amongst the hundred students in the class     want to watch this movie

                   (a)                                                             (b)                                                               (c)

    No error

         (d)

     

    108) Although there is virtually no production in India,    the Encyclopaedia Britannica estimate

                                                       (a)                                                                                  (b)

    that India has perhaps the largest accumulated stocks of silver in the world    No error

                                                          (c)                                                                                       (d)

    109) We have to reach    there at ten   will you please walk little faster   No error

                          (a)                          (b)                                      (c)                                       (d)

     

    110) It is almost difficult,      in case impossible,      to keep awake late after dinner.   No error

                         (a)                                       (b)                                                 (c)                                 (d)

     

    111) What most students need, above all else    is practice in writing     

                                            (a)                                                      (b)                                

    and particularly in writing things that matter to them.       No error

                                            (c)                                                                   (d)

     

    112) She was out of the mind,    when she made that plan to go abroad

                              (a)                                                           (b)

    without taking into consideration her present family position.    No error

                                                 (c)                                                                        (d)

     

    113) Are you    through with    that newspaper?    No errror

                (a)                (b)                            (c)                        (d)

     

    114) My college    is besides    the lake      No error

                    (a)                 (b)             (c)                  (d)

     

    115) The Department of Fine Arts has been criticised     for not having much required courses

                                                           (a)                                                                        (b)

    Scheduled for this semester.       No errror

                          (c)                                    (d)

     

    116) If you have thought about the alternatives,     you would not have chosen

                                             (a)                                                                       (b)

    such a difficult topic for the term paper.   No error

                                   (c)                                             (d)

     

    117) The duties of the secretary are     to take the minutes, mailing the correspondence,

                                    (a)                                                                      (b)

    and calling the members before meeting.    No error

                                   (c)                                                (d)

     

    118) If I was you,     I would not go to film       in my mother’s absence.    No error

                   (a)                                (b)                                         (c)                                 (d)

     

    119) Those of us who have a family history of heart disease     should make a yearly appointment

                                                         (a)                                                                                (b)

    with their doctors      No error

              (c)                             (d)

     

    120) The old furniture’s     was disposed of     and the new ones were placed .   No error

                           (a)                                (b)                                           (c)                                  (d)


    UPSC CDS Answer Key 2017 with Questions for Paper 2 (General Knowledge) – Set A

    Edit
    Q No.Ans.Q No.Ans.Q No.Ans.Q No.Ans.
    1d31b61d91a
    2b32a62a92c
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    5a35C65a95b
    6b36a66b96c
    7c37a67c97d
    8B38a68c98d
    9a39b69c99a
    10d40c70c100c
    11b41d71d101d
    12b42b72c102a
    13d43b73d103c
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    16a46d76a106a
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    18d48c78a108c
    19b49a79d109d
    20c50c80d110b
    21b51b81c111d
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    23b53d83b113c
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    26d56a86b116d
    27c57c87b117b
    28b58c88c118b
    29a59d89c119b
    30a60b90d120d

    UPSC CDS Answer Key 2017 with Questions for Paper 2 (General Knowledge) – Set C

    Edit
    Q No.Ans.Q No.Ans.Q No.Ans.Q No.Ans.
    1A31D61B91A
    2D32B62A92B
    3C33C63A93D
    4D34C64A94B
    5B35A65C95C
    6D36B66A96B
    7B37C67A97B
    8C38B68A98B
    9B39A69C99C
    10B40D70D100D
    11D41B71D101D
    12B42B72B102C
    13B43B73B103B
    14B44D74D104A
    15D45D75D105A
    16A46D76D106A
    17C47A77A107B
    18A48D78C108A
    19C49B79A109D
    20B50C80C110D
    21C51B81B111C
    22D52C82D112C
    23D53C83D113B
    24A54C84C114B
    25C55C85D115A
    26D56D86A116B
    27C57C87C117B
    28C58D88C118C
    29C59A89D119C
    30B60D90B120D

    UPSC CDS Answer Key 2017 with Questions for Paper 2 (General Knowledge) – Set D

    Edit
    Q No.Ans.Q No.Ans.Q No.Ans.Q No.Ans.
    1A31A61D91A
    2B32D62A92B
    3D33C63C93A
    4B34D64A94D
    5C35B65C95D
    6B36D66B96C
    7B37B67D97C
    8B38C68D98B
    9C39B69C99B
    10D40B70D100A
    11D41D71A101B
    12C42B72C102B
    13B43B73C103C
    14A44B74D104C
    15A45D75B105D
    16B46A76D106D
    17A47C77B107A
    18A48A78C108D
    19A49C79C109B
    20C50B80A110A
    21A51C81B111B
    22A52D82C112C
    23A53D83B113C
    24B54A84A114C
    25C55C85D115C
    26D56D86B116D
    27B57A87B117C
    28B58C88D118D
    29D59C89D119A
    30D60B90D120D

    What did you think of the exam? We’d love to hear from you. Do leave your feedback in the Comments Section.

    This is in sequence of SET D

    The option highlighted in orange color is the correct answer.

    Set D (1-15) = Set A (16-30)

    Set D (16-30) = Set A (31-45)

    Set D (31-45) = Set A (106-120)

    Set D (46-60) = Set A (91-105)

    Set D (61-75) = Set A (46-60)

    Set D (76-90) = Set A (1-15)

    Set D (91-105) = Set A (76-90)

    Set D (106-120) = Set A (61-75)

     

    1) A person is standing on a frictionless horizontal ground. How can he move by a certain distance on this ground?

    (a) By sneezing

    (b) By jumping

    (c) By running

    (d) By rolling

    Source: http://www.physicsclassroom.com/class/momentum/Lesson-2/Momentum-Conservation-Principle

     

    2) In the reaction between hydrogen sulphate ion and water

    HSO4  +  H2O H3O + SO42-

    the water acts as

    (a) an acid

    (b) a base

    (c) a salt

    (d) an inert medium

    Source: https://chem.libretexts.org/Core/Physical_and_Theoretical_Chemistry/Acids_and_Bases/Acid/Bronsted_Concept_of_Acids_and_Bases

     

    3) How many hydrogen atoms are contained in 1.50 g of glucose (C6H12O6)?

    (a) 3.01 x 1022

    (b) 1.20 x 1023

    (c) 2.40 x 1023

    (d) 6.02 x 1022

    Source: http://www.chemistryexplained.com/Ma-Na/Mole-Concept.html

     

    4) The paste of a white material in water is used to maintain a fractured bone fixed in place. The white material used is called.

    (a) bleaching powder

    (b) plaster of Paris

    (c) powder of zinc oxide

    (d) lime powder

    Source: https://www.britannica.com/technology/plaster-of-paris

     

    5) Which one of the following types of glasses is used for making optical instruments?

    (a) Pyrex glass

    (b) Soft glass

    (c) Hard glass

    (d) Flint glass

     

    6) Most ozone gas (about 90%) is located in the atmospheric layer of

    (a) ionosphere

    (b) troposphere

    (c) stratosphere

    (d) mesosphere

    Source: http://eschooltoday.com/ozone-depletion/what-is-ozone-gas.html

     

    7) What are the main constituents of biogas?

    (a) Methane and sulphur dioxide

    (b) Methane and carbon dioxide

    (c) Methane , hydrogen and nitric oxide

    (d) Methane and nitric oxide

    Source: http://www.biogas-renewable-energy.info/biogas_composition.html

     

    8) In which two Indian States of the four mentioned below, it is necessary to hold certain minimum educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections?

    1. Punjab

    2. Haryana

    3. Karnakata

    4. Rajastahan

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 and 2

    (b) 2 and 4

    (c) 2 and 3

    (d) 1 and 4

    Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/haryana-law-on-minimum-qualification-for-panchayat-polls-valid-says-supreme-court/article7969669.ece ; http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-others/rajasthan-becomes-1st-state-to-have-minimum-educational-qualifications-for-panchayat-polls/

     

    9) Which of the following statements about ‘delegation’ is/are correct?

    1. It is the abdication of responsibility.

    2. It means conferring of specified authority by a lower authority to a higher one.

    3. It is subject to supervision and review.

    4. It is a method of dividing authority in the organization.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 3 only

    (b) 2 and 4 only

    (c) 3 and 4

    (d) 1, 2 and 4

    Source: http://www.businessdictionary.com/definition/delegation.html

     

    10) Which of the following features were borrowed by the Constitution of India from the British Constitution?

    1. Rule of Law

    2. Law making Procedure

    3. Independence of Judiciary

    4. Parliamentary

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2, 3 and 4

    (c) 1 and 4 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 4

    Source: NCERT Class 11, Political Science, chapter 1, page 22

    11) Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has fixed the number of Members of the Rajya Sabha to be elected from each State?

    (a) Fifth Schedule

    (b) Third Schedule

    (c) Sixth Schedule

    (d) Fourth Schedule

    Source: http://lawmin.nic.in/olwing/coi/coi-english/Const.Pock%202Pg.Rom8Fsss(32).pdf

     

    12) Which one of the following statements about various horticulture crops of India for the year 2016 – 17 is not correct?

    (a) The area under horticulture crops has increased over previous year

    (b) Fruit production during the current year is higher than the previous year

    (c) Rate of increase in onion production is more than potato production in the current year in comparison to the previous year

    (d) The major tomato-growing States are Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh , Karnataka, Odisha and Gujarat.

    Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=170400

     

    13) The phenomenon of ‘demographic dividend’ of a country relates to

    (a) a sharp decline in total population

    (b) an increase in working age population

    (c) a decline in infant mortality rate

    (d) an increase in sex ratio

    Source: http://www.demographicdividend.org/

     

    14) Arrange the following events in sequential order as they happened in India :

    1. Mahalanobis Model

    2. Plan Holiday

    3. Rolling Plan

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1, 2, 3

    (b) 3, 2, 1

    (c) 2, 3, 1

    (d) 1, 3, 2

    Source: http://thejournalofbusiness.org/index.php/site/article/view/197 ; https://www.vskills.in/certification/blog/indias-plan-holiday-from-the-5-year-plans/ ; http://indiatoday.intoday.in/story/govts-rolling-plan-as-a-substitute-for-five-year-plans-elicits-mixed-reaction/1/435719.html

     

    15) The monetary policy in India uses which of the following tools?

    1. Bank rate

    2. Open market operations

    3. Public debt

    4. Public revenue

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 4 only

    (d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4

    Source: http://www.businessstudynotes.com/others/banking-finance/instruments-monetary-policy-objectives/

     

    16) Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if prices of

    (a) domestic goods remain constant

    (b) exports become cheaper to importers

    (c) imports remain constant

    (d) exports rise proportionality

    Source: https://www.macroeconomics.lv/devaluation-exports-and-imports

    Directions :

    The following five (5) items consist of two statements , Statement 1 and Statement II , Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Code :

    a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

    b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

    c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

     

    17) Statement I :

    Skin cancer is generally caused by the ultraviolet radiation.

    Statement II :

    Stratosphere allows ultraviolet radiation to enter the earth from the sun.

    Answer B 

    b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

    Source: http://www.skincancer.org/prevention/uva-and-uvb ; https://earthobservatory.nasa.gov/Features/UVB/uvb_radiation3.php

     

    18) Statement I :

    The interior part of Maharashtra does not receive adequate rain in the summer season.

    Statement II :

    The interior part of Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats.

    Answer A: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

    Source: http://www.india-wris.nrsc.gov.in/wrpinfo/index.php?title=Maharashtra

     

    19) Statement I :

    Global warming signifies the rise in global surface temperature.

    Statement II :

    The increase of concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere causes the rise in global surface temperature.

    Answer A: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

    Source: http://timeforchange.org/cause-and-effect-for-global-warming

    20) Statement I :

    The Communists left the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931.

    Statement II :

    By 1928, the Communists were no longer working with the mainstream national movement.

     

    21) Statement I :

    The early Aryans, who were essentially pastoral, did not develop any political structure which could measure up to a State in either ancient or modern sense.

    Statement II :

    Kingship was the same as tribal chief ship; the term Rajan being used for tribal chief who was primarily a military leader and who ruled over his people and not over any specified area.

    Answer A: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

    Source: http://www.historydiscussion.net/history-of-india/aryan-civilization/the-aryans-and-the-aryan-civilization/5705

     

    22) Which one of the following peasant struggles was an outcome of British opium policy ?

    (a)  Phulaguri Dhawa [1861]

    (b)  Birsaite Ulgulan [1899- 1900]

    (c)  Pabna Revolt [1873]

    (d)  Maratha Peasant Uprising [1875]

    Source: https://www.oneindia.com/2011/10/25/few-remember-anti-british-phulaguri-uprising.html

     

    23) Which one of the following statements about the Sayyid brothers during the period of Later Mughals is not true ?

    (a)  They brought Jahandar Shah to power

    (b)  They wielded administrative power.

    (c)  They followed a tolerant religious policy.

    (d)  They reached an agreement with King Shahu.

    Source: http://www.preservearticles.com/2012041030207/notes-on-the-importance-of-sayyid-brothers.html

    24) Which of the following statements with regard to the heterodox sect between sixth and fourth century BC are correct ?

    1. The jain ideals were already being circulated in the seventh century BC by Parshava.

    2. Although Buddhism, and to a lesser extent Jainism, took account of the changes in material life and reacted against orthodoxy, neither of these sought to abolish the caste system.

    3. The first female disciple of Mahavira is said to have been a captured slave woman.

    4. Buddha held that nuns could attain spiritual liberation just like a monk and granted them an equal status in the mendicant order.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :

    (a)  1, 2, 3, and 4

    (b)  1, 2 and 3 only

    (c)  1, 2 and 4 only

    (d)  3 and 4 only

     

    25) Which one of the following combinations of year and event concerning the French Revolution is correctly matched ?

    (a) 1789 : Napoleonic Code

    (b)  1791 : Tennis Court Oath

    (c)  1792 : National Convention

    (d)  1804 : New Constitution of France.

    Source: http://www.historyhome.co.uk/c-eight/france/frevchro.htm

     

    26) Who among the following is the author of the book, The Social Contract ?

    (a)  Voltaire

    (b)  Hobbes

    (c)  Locke

    (d)  Rousseau

    Source: http://www.sparknotes.com/philosophy/socialcontract/summary.html

     

    27) Who among the following is the recipient of the Jnanpith Award, 2016 ?

    (a)  Shankha Ghosh

    (b)  Raghuveer Chaudhari

    (c)  Pratibha Ray

    (d)  Rehman Rahi

    Source: http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tp-otherstates/Bengali-poet-Shankha-Ghosh-chosen-for-Jnanpith-Award/article16936605.ece

    28) The Sustainable Development Goals [SDFs], which were adapted by the UNO in place of the Millennium Development Goals [MGDs] 2015, aim to achieve the 17 goals by the year.

    (a)  2020

    (b)  2030

    (c)  2040

    (d)  2050

    Source: https://www.weforum.org/agenda/2015/09/what-are-the-sustainable-development-goals/

    29) Teejan Bai, a recipient of the M.S. Subbulakshmi Centenary Award, 2016, is an exponent in

    (a)  Kannanda classical vocal

    (b)  Kajari dance

    (c)  Bihu dance

    (d)  Pandavani, a traditional performing art.

    Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/7-women-get-M.S.-Subbulakshmi-Awards/article14636767.ece

    30) Who among the following is the recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2016 ?

    (a)  Nana Patekar

    (b)  Manoj Kumar

    (c)  Javed Akhtar

    (d)  K.Viswanath

    Source: http://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/movies/k-viswanath-wins-dadasaheb-phalke-award-for-2016/article18200164.ece

     

    31) Which one of the following statements about the all India Services is correct ?

    (a)  The All India Services may be created by an Act of the Parliament.

    (b)  The endorsement of the Rajya Sabha is not essential for the creation of the All India Services.

    (c)  The rules of recruitment to the All India Services are determined by the UPSC.

    (d)  The conditions of service to the All India Services may be altered by the UPSC.

     

    32) Which one of the following statements about emergency provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct ?

    (a)  The powers of the Union Executive extend to giving directions to the States concerning the exercise of their powers.

    (b)  The Union Executive can issue a provision relating to reduction of salaries of employees of the state Governments.

    (c)  Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India.

    (d)  If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State.

     

    33) The National Handloom Day is observed on

    (a)  7th June

    (b)  17th July

    (c)  7th August

    (d)  17th September

    Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=169702

     

    34) Venus, the first environment research satellite, was launched in August 2017 by which one of the following countries ?

    (a)  India

    (b)  Russia

    (c)  China

    (d)  Israel

    Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/VEN%C2%B5S

     

    35) Which one of the following was the theme of the World Environment Day, 2017 ?

    (a)  Green Economy : Does it include you ?

    (b)  Connecting people to Nature

    (c)  Think, Eat, save

    (d)  Many Species, One Planet, One Future.

    Source: http://www.worldenvironmentday.global/en/news/connect-nature-world-environment-day-2017

     

    36) The all-women expedition of Indian Navy to circumnavigate the globe on the sailing vessel, INSC Tarini, is scheduled to have four stopovers. Which one of the following is not one of them?

    (a)  Fremantle

    (b)  Lyttelton

    (c)  Port Stanley

    (d)  Durban

    Source: https://mumbaimirror.indiatimes.com/news/india/navika-sagar-parikrama-expedition-on-insv-tarini-meet-the-6-women-sailors-who-are-going-to-circumnavigate-the-earth/articleshow/60115064.cms

     

    37) Why was constitutional amendment needed for introducing GST ?

    (a) States were not willing to agree with the Union for introduction of GST without amendment in the Constitution.

    (b)  GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and Article 246 was inadequate for such a case.

    (c)  The Empowered Committee of Finance ministers had recommended for constitutional amendment.

    (d)  The GST Council had recommended for constitutional amendment so that its power enhances.

    Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/slideshows/economy/the-legislative-route-for-roll-out-of-gst-bill/why-is-a-constitutional-amendment-needed/slideshow/53520046.cms

     

    38) Where is the world’s first Partition Museum inaugurated recently ?

    (a)  New Delhi

    (b)  Lahore

    (c)  Amritsar

    (d)  Islamabad

    Source: http://www.partitionmuseum.org/about-us/

     

    39) The Setu Bharatam programme of the Government of India is a programme for

    (a) building bridges across major rivers for transport of goods

    (b)  buildings bridges for safe and seamless travel on national highways

    (c)  building roads to connect coastal areas

    (d)  training of highway engineers at the entry level and service level

    Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=137325

     

    40) Which one of the following statements about the Global Environment Facility Grant Agreement, signed by India in August 2017 with the World Bank for ‘Ecosystems Service Improvement Project’, is not correct ?

    (a)  The size of the project is about USD 25 million.

    (b)  The duration of the project is 15 years

    (c)  The project will entirely be financed by the World Bank out of its GEF Trust Fund.

    (d)  The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change will implement the project.

    Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=170041

     

    41) UBI, as an alternative for substance in poverty alleviation, stands for

    (a)  Union Basic Income

    (b)  Undefined Basic Income

    (c)  Unconditional Basic Income

    (d)  Universal Basic Income

    Source: http://indiabudget.nic.in/e_survey.asp

    42) Which one of the following authorities has recently launched the mobile apps ‘MyFASTag’ and FASTag Partner’ ?

    (a) Telecom Regulatory Authority

    (b)  National Highways Authority

    (c)  Airports Economic Regulatory Authority

    (d)  National Disaster Management Authority

    Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=170054

     

    43) ‘Pragati scholarship scheme of the Government of India is meant for

    (a) higher education of girls

    (b)  technical education of girls

    (c)  secondary education of girls

    (d)  elementary education of girls

    Source: http://www.buddy4study.com/scholarship/aicte-scholarship-scheme-to-girl-child-ssgc-under-pragati-2017

    44) Which one of the following is not a feature of the Saansad Adaesh Gram Yojana [SAGY] ?

    (a)  It focuses on community participation

    (b)  It is to be guided by a Member of the Parliament

    (c)  It aims at creating infrastructure for the village.

    (d)  A Village Development Plan would be prepared for every identified Gram Panchayat.

    Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=110430

     

    45) Which one of the following is not included in the National Air Quality Index ?

    (a)  Sulphur

    (b)  Nitrogen dioxide

    (c)  Lead

    (d)  Methane

    Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=110654

     

    46) Which twelfth century Sanskrit scholar was first responsible for the compilation of ‘Nibandhas’ or digests of epic and Puranic texts ?

    (a)  Harsha

    (b)  Govindachandra

    (c)  Lakshmidhara

    (d)  Kalidas

    47) Who among the following scholars argued that ‘capital created underdevelopment not because it exploited the underdeveloped world, but because it did not exploit it enough ?

    (a)  Bill Warren

    (b)  Paul Baran

    (c)  Geoffrey Kay

    (d)  Lenin

    Source: https://books.google.co.in/books?id=ItvBIimr0pgC&pg=PA57&lpg=PA57&dq=who+argued+capital+created+under+development+not+because+it+exploited+the+underdeveloped+world+but+because+it+did+not+exploit+it+enough&source=bl&ots=BKx4vtlWdB&sig=-8uhakppnJ0GtT3X_pRAOsP1Yv4&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjr89fTvsrXAhUD4iYKHaWtD4AQ6AEIJzAA#v=onepage&q=who%20argued%20capital%20created%20under%20development%20not%20because%20it%20exploited%20the%20underdeveloped%20world%20but%20because%20it%20did%20not%20exploit%20it%20enough&f=false

     

    48) Which river is praised in the fifth century Tamil epic, Silappadikaram ?

    (a)  Cauvery

    (b)  Godavari

    (c)  Saraswati

    (d)  Ganges

    Source: http://storytellinginstitute.org/22e.pdf

     

    49) Which one of the following statements about the Harappan Culture is not correct ?

    (a)  It witnessed the first cities in the subcontinent.

    (b)  It marks the first use of script, written from right to left.

    (c)  it marks the earliest known use of iron as a medium for the art of sculpting.

    (d) It matks the earliest known use of stone as a medium for the art of sculpting.

    Source: https://www.importantindia.com/2904/culture-of-harappan-civilization/

     

    50) Harshacharita has references to various presents sent by a ruler named Bhaskara to Harshavardhana. Bhaskara belonged to

    (a)  Haryanka Dynasty of magadha

    (b) Varman Dynasty of Assam

    (c)  Nanda Dynasty of North India

    (d)  None of the above

    Source: http://www.historyfiles.co.uk/KingListsFarEast/IndiaAssam.htm

    51) Which of the following lakes is/are situated in Ladakh ?

    1. Tso Kar
    2. Pangong Tso
    3. Tsomgo
    4. Tso Moriri

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a)  1 only

    (b)  2  and 3

    (c)   1, 2  and 4

    (d)   2 and 4 only

    Source: http://www.sikkimtourism.gov.in/Webforms/General/PlacesOfInterest/Tsomgo.aspx http://www.firstpost.com/india/india-china-clash-near-high-altitude-pangong-lake-as-border-tensions-refuse-to-subside-all-you-need-to-know-3935981.html http://www.ladakhtourism.in/Tso-Morri-Lake.aspx http://jkinside.com/page/tso-kar-lake/

     

    52) ‘Tuvalu’ has become a point of discussion recently. Why ?

    (a)  potato plant that could grow in high altitude.

    (b)  Place in equatorial Africa, where snow is found

    (c)  New innovative technology to meet global warming

    (d)  A country under threat of submergence due to ice melting and sea level rise.

    Source: http://www.bbc.com/news/world-asia-pacific-16340072

     

    53) Which of the following statements related to latitude are true ?

    1. Rainfall, temperature and vegetation vary with latitude.
    2. The difference between the longest day and the shortest day increases with latitude.
    3. Indira Point is located approximately at 6o45’N latitude.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a)  1 and 2 only

    (b)  1 and 3 only

    (c)  2 and 3 only

    (d)  1, 2 and 3

    Source: https://sciencing.com/latitude-affect-climate-4586935.html

     

    54) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List – I

    [Lake]

    1. Bhimtal
    2. Ashtamudi
    3. Gohna
    4. Lonar

    List – II

    [Type of Lake]

    1. Lagoon
    2. Landslide
    3. Tectonic
    4. Crater

     

    Code :

    A         B         C         D

    (a)        3          1          2          4

    (b)       3          2          1          4

    (c)        4          2          1          3

    (d)       4          1          2          3

     

    Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/nlcp/Lakes/Bhimtal%20Lake.pdf, http://esatjournals.net/ijret/2014v03/i18/IJRET20140318023.pdf, http://www.the-south-asian.com/April-June2008/Gohna_Lake.htm, http://www.natgeotraveller.in/lonar-lake-the-meteor-mystery-that-has-even-nasa-intrigued/

     

    55) Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

    1. Himalayan rivers have their origin in the snow-covered areas, hence are dry in winter season.
    2. Rivers of the Peninsular Plateau have reached maturity.
    3. Himalayan rivers depict all the three stages of normal cycle of erosion.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a)  2 only

    (b)  1 and 3 only

    (c)  2 and 3 only

    (d)  1, 2 and 3

    Source: https://kids.britannica.com/students/article/Himalayas/274884/202035-toc

     

    56) match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

    Lists – I

    [States of NE India]

    1. Tripura
    2. Mizoram
    3. Nagaland
    4. Manipur

     

    List – II

    [Location in Map]

    Code :

    A         B         C         D

    (a)        2          1          4          3

    (b)       2          4          1          3

    (c)        3          1          4          2

    (d)       3          4          1          2

    Source: http://www.ncw.nic.in/images/NER.png

     

    57) Which one of the following statements regarding Uniform Civil Code as provided under Article 44 of the Constitution of India is not correct ?

    (a)  It is Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen.

    (b)  The State shall endeavour to secure it for citizens throughout the territory of India.

    (c)  It is not enforceable by any Court.

    (d)  It is not enforceable by a Court yet the Constitution requires that as a principle it should be fundamental in the governance of our country.

    Source: https://blogs.timesofindia.indiatimes.com/satyam-bruyat/uniform-civil-code/

     

    58) Which of the following was/were founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy ?

    1. Atmiya Sabha
    2. Brahmo Samaj
    3. Prarthana Samaj
    4. Arya Samaj

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a)  1, 2 and 3

    (b)  2 only

    (c)  1 and 2 only

    (d)  1, 3 and 4

    Source: http://www.thebrahmosamaj.net/founders/rammohun.html\

     

    59) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists.

    Lists – I

    [Harappan Site]

    1. Dholavira
    2. Rakhigarhi
    3. Bhirrana
    4. Bhogavo

    List – II

    [Modern Name]

    1. Saurashtra
    2. Hisar
    3. Kadir island
    4. Haryana

    Code :

    A         B         C         D

    (a)        1          4          2          3

    (b)       1          2          4          3

    (c)        3          2          4          1

    (d)       3          4          2          1

    Source: https://books.google.co.in/books?id=73bZBQAAQBAJ&pg=PT607&lpg=PT607&dq=kadir+island+gujarat&source=bl&ots=GbfuupqSzw&sig=4pdr1OfDwBCzS244OLcinc-yufs&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwj0oaTaxcrXAhXKu48KHak7AWEQ6AEIPzAG#v=onepage&q=kadir%20island%20gujarat&f=false

     

    60) Which one of the following statements about the Gupta period in Indian history is not correct?

    (a)  Sanskrit language and literature, after centuries of evolution, reached what has been described as a level of classical excellence through royal patronage.

    (b)  The status of women was redefined. They were entitled to formal education and hence there were women teachers, philosophers and doctors. Early marriage was prohibited by law and they were given the right to property.

    (c)  Decentralization of administrative authority was impacted by increased grants of land and villages with fiscal and administrative immunities to priests and temples.

    (d)  land grants paved the way for feudal developments and emergence of selfdom in India, resulting in the depression of the peasantry.

    Source: https://www.ancient.eu/Gupta_Empire/

     

    61) The Nobel Prize in Physics for the year 2016 was given to

    (a)  David J. Thouless

    (b)  F. Duncan M. Haldane

    (c)  J. Michael Kosterlitz

    (d)  All of them

    Source: https://www.nobelprize.org/nobel_prizes/physics/laureates/2016/

     

    62) Which one of the following political parties was launched by Irom Sharmila in Manipur ?

    (a)  People’s Resurgence and Justice Alliance

    (b)  Manipur Resistance Alliance

    (c)  Tribal Resistance Party

    (d)  Revolutionary People’s Party

    Source: http://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/irom-sharmila-launches-new-party-to-contest-manipur-assembly-polls-next-year/story-dacIF3pG5yacW7ch16Zn6H.html

     

    63) Which one of the following planets was explored by Cassini Mission launched by NASA, which ended in September 2017 ?

    (a)  Sun

    (b)  Neptune

    (c)  Saturn

    (d)  Jupiter

    Source: https://www.nasa.gov/press-release/nasa-announces-cassini-end-of-mission-media-activities

     

    64) Match List – I  with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List – I

    [Strait]

    1. Bass Strait
    2. Davis Strait
    3. Dover Strait
    4. Florida Strait

    List – II

    [Countries ]

    1. UK and France
    2. Australia and Tasmania
    3. USA and Cuba
    4. Canada and Greenland

    Code :

    A         B         C         D

    (a)        2          4          1          3

    (b)       2          1          4          3

    (c)        3          4          1          2

    (d)       3          1          4          2

    Source: https://www.britannica.com/place/Bass-Strait, https://www.britannica.com/place/Davis-Strait, https://www.britannica.com/place/Strait-of-Dover,https://www.britannica.com/place/Straits-of-Florida

     

    65) Match List – I  with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List – I

    [ Pass]

    1. Zoji La
    2. Shipki La
    3. Lipulekh
    4. Nathu La

    List – II

    [Place]

    1. Himachal Pradesh
    2. Uttarakhand
    3. Jammu and Kashmir
    4. Sikkim

    Code :

    A         B         C         D

    (a)        4          2          1          3

    (b)       4          1          2          3

    (c)        3          1          2          4

    (d)       3          2          1          4

    Source: http://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/iess102.pdf

     

    66) Match List – I  with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List – I

    [Concern]

    1. TISCO
    2. BALCO
    3. BPCL
    4. BEL

    List – II

    [Product]

    1. Chemicals
    2. Iron & steel
    3. Electronics
    4. Aluminium

    Code :

    A         B         C         D

    (a)        2          1          4          3

    (b)       2          4          1          3

    (c)        3          4          1          2

    (d)       3          1          4          2

    Source: https://www.ibef.org/download/Tata_Steel.pdf, http://www.balcoindia.com/, http://bel-india.com/,https://www.bharatpetroleum.com/

     

    67) Match List – I  with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List – I

    [National Highway]

    1. NH – 2
    2. NH – 4
    3. NH – 7
    4. NH – 8

    List – II

    [Route]

    1. Delhi – Jaipur – Ahmedabad – Mumbai
    2. Thane – Pune – Bengaluru – Chennai
    3. Delhi – Agra – Allahabad – Kolkata
    4. Varanasi – jabalpur – Nagpur – Hyderabad – Bengaluru – Madurai – Kanyakumari

    Code :

    A         B         C         D

    (a)        3          4          2          1

    (b)       1          2          4          3

    (c)        1          4          2          3

    (d)       3          2          4          1

    Source: http://nhai.org/Doc/23june12/NH_NH%20wise.pdf

     

    68) One carbon credit is accepted as equivalent to

    (a)  100 kg of carbon

    (b)  100 kg of carbon dioxide

    (c)  1000 kg of carbon

    (d)  1000 kg of carbon dioxide

    Source: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/c/carbon_credit.asp

     

    69) An emulsion consists of

    (a)  one liquid and one solid

    (b)  one liquid and one gas

    (c)  two liquids

    (d)  two solids

    Source: https://www.thoughtco.com/definition-of-emulsion-605086

     

    70) Which one of the following radioactive substances enters/enter the human body through food chain and causes/cause many physiological disorders ?

    (a) Strontium – 90

    (b)  Iodine – 131

    (c)  Cesium – 137

    (d)  All of the above

    Source: https://books.google.co.in/books?id=4HOGwg0YqwMC&pg=PA21&lpg=PA21&dq=Iodine+131in+food+chain&source=bl&ots=5fAy9Yimjw&sig=6sc5ZkOrr0bm1D6o3TKqxgQ4QjI&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiPpvmv6srXAhXJsI8KHaTNAcwQ6AEIXzAN#v=onepage&q=Iodine%20131in%20food%20chain&f=false , https://www.epa.gov/radiation/radionuclide-basics-strontium-90, https://www.nature.com/articles/srep03599

     

    71) ‘Xeriscaping’ is a concept related to

    (a)  landscaping related to save water

    (b) landscaping related to save soil erosion

    (c)  weathering of rock surface

    (d)  all of the above

    Source: https://www.nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/xeriscaping/

    72) Joule – Thomson process is extremely useful and economical for attaining low temperature. The process can be categorized as

    (a)  isobaric process

    (b)  isoenthalpic process

    (c)  adiabatic process

    (d)  isochoric process

    Source: https://www.comsol.co.in/multiphysics/joule-thomson-effect

     

    73) Ultrasonic waves are produced by making use of

    (a)  ferromagnetic material

    (b)  ferrimagnetic material

    (c)  piezoelectric material

    (d)  pyroelectrical material

    Source: http://www.physics-assignment.com/generationproduction-of-ultrasonic-waves

     

    74) A person throws an object on a horizontal friction plane surface. It is noticed that there are two forces acting on this object – (i) gravitational pull and (ii) normal reaction of the surface. According to the third law of motion, the net resultant force is zero. Which one of the following can be said for the motion of the objects ?

    (a)  The object will move with acceleration.

    (b)  The object will move with deceleration.

    (c)  The object will move with constant speed, but varying direction.

    (d)  The object will move with constant velocity.

     

    75) Consider the following statements :

    1. The chain reaction process is used in nuclear bombs to release a vast amount of energy, but in nuclear reactors, there is no chain reaction.
    2. In a nuclear reactor, the reaction is controlled, while in nuclear bombs, the reaction is uncontrolled.
    3. In a nuclear reactor, all operating reactors are ‘critical’, while there is no question of ‘critically’ in case of a nuclear bomb.
    4. Nuclear reactors do not use moderators, while nuclear bombs use them.

    Which of the above statements about operational principles of a nuclear reactor and a nuclear bomb is/are correct ?

    (a)  1 and 3

    (b)  2 and 3

    (c)  4 only

    (d)  1 and 4

    Source: http://www.nuclear-power.net/nuclear-power/nuclear-reactions/, http://www.nuclearfiles.org/menu/key-issues/nuclear-weapons/basics/weapons-basics.htm

    76) Which one of the following tribal groups is dominantly found in the ‘Blue Mountains’?

    (a)  Lambadas

    (b)  Gonda

    (c)  Jarawas

    (d)  Todas

    Source: http://www.indianmirror.com/tribes/todatribe.html

     

    77) Who among the following geographers is related to ‘primate city’ concept ?

    (a)  August Losch

    (b)  Mark Jefferson

    (c)  Griffith Taylor

    (d)  W.Christaller

    Source: https://www.thoughtco.com/law-of-primate-cities-1435793

     

    78) Which one of the following islands is the largest ?

    (a)  Borneo

    (b)  Madagascar

    (c)  New Guinea

    (d)  Sumatra

     

    79) Arrange the following Tiger Reserves of India from North to South :

    1. Dudhawa

    2. Panna

    3. Pench

    4. Inravati

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a)  4, 3, 2, 1

    (b)  2, 1, 4, 3

    (c)  1, 2, 3, 4

    (d)  1, 3, 2, 4

    Source: http://www.theearthsafari.com/images/tiger-reserve-map-india.jpg

     

    80) Which one of the following proteins gives Justrous shiny appearance to silk fibre ?

    (a)  Fibrin

    (b)  Seriein

    (c)  Collagen

    (d)  Nectin

    Source: https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/102006207

     

    81) Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by the contamination of

    (a)  nitrite [NO2-]

    (b) sulphite [SO32-]

    (c) nitrate  [NO3]

    (d)  sulphate [SO42-]

    Source: https://www.atsdr.cdc.gov/csem/csem.asp?csem=28&po=10

     

    82) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List – I

    [Cell Organelle]

    1. Mitochondria

    2. Chloroplast

    3. Ribosomes

    4. Lysosomes

    List – II

    [Function]

    1. Photosynthesis

    2. Protein synthesis

    3. Intracellular digestion

    4. ATP formation

    Code :

    A B C D

    (a) 3 1 2 4

    (b) 3 2 1 4

    (c) 4 1 2 3

    (d) 4 2 1 3

    Source: https://biologydictionary.net/chloroplast/, http://www.softschools.com/science/biology/function_of_ribosomes/ http://www.softschools.com/science/biology/the_function_of_lysosomes/ http://www.softschools.com/science/biology/function_of_mitochondria/

     

    83) Human insulin molecule is composed of one α-chain having 21 amino acids and one β-chain having 30 amino acids. How many functional insulin genes occur in adult humans ?

    (a)  one

    (b) two

    (c)  three

    (d)  four

     

    84) Pearl is a hard object produced within the soft tissues of a mollusc. Which one of the following is the main constituent of pearl ?

    (a) Calcium carbonate  

    (b)  Calcium oxide

    (c)  calcium nitrate

    (d)  Calcium sulphate

    Source: https://www.britannica.com/topic/pearl-gemstone

     

    85) A biological community in its environment such as a pond, and ocean, a forest, even an aquarium is known as

    (a)  biome

    (b)  community

    (c)  abiotic environment

    (d)  ecosystem

    Source: http://eschooltoday.com/ecosystems/what-is-a-biome.html

     

    86) An electron and a protein starting from rest are accelerated through a potential difference of 1000 V. Which one f the following statements in this regard is correct ?

    (a)  The kinetic energy of both the particles will be different.

    (b)  The speed of the electron will be higher than that of the proton.

    (c)  The speed of the proton will be higher than that of the electron.

    (d)  The speed of the electron and the proton will be equal.

    Source: http://practicalphysics.org/speed-electrons.html

     

    87) Two wires are made having same length l and area of cross section A. Wire 1 is made of copper and wire 2 is made of aluminium. It is given that the electrical conductivity of copper is more than that of aluminium. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct ?

    (a)  The resistance of wire 1 will be higher than that of wire 2.

    (b)  The resistance of wire 2 will be higher than that of wire 1.

    (c)  The resistance of both the wires will be the same

    (d)  If same current is flown through both the wires, the power dissipated in both the wires will be the same.

    Source: http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/electric/resis.html

     

    88) A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 40o with respect to surface normal. When it gets reflected from the mirror, it undergoes a deviation of

    (a) 40o

    (b)  100o

    (c)  90o

    (d)  80o

    Source: http://farside.ph.utexas.edu/teaching/302l/lectures/node127.html

     

    89) Infrared, visible and ultraviolet radiations/light have different properties. Which one of the following statements related to these radiations/light is not correct ?

    (a) The wavelength of infrared is more than that of ultraviolet radiation.

    (b)  The wavelength of ultraviolet is smaller than that of visible light.

    (c)  The photon energy of visible light is more than that of infrared light

    (d)  The photon energy of ultraviolet is lesser than that of visible light.

    Source: https://imagine.gsfc.nasa.gov/science/toolbox/emspectrum1.html

     

    90) After using for some time, big transformers get heated up. This is due to the fact that

    1. current produces heat in the transformers.

    2. hysteresis loss occurs in the transformers

    3. liquid used for cooling gets heated

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a)  1 only

    (b)  2 and 3 only

    (c)  1 and 2 only

    (d)  1, 2 and 3

    Source: https://canadatransformers.com/transformer-efficiency-losses-heat/

    91) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List – I

    [Type of Deficit]

    1. Fiscal Deficit

    2. Revenue Deficit

    3. Effective  Revenue Deficit

    4. Primary Deficit

    List – II

    [Explanation]

    A. Total Expenditure – Revenue Receipts and Non-debit

    B. Revenue Expenditure –  Revenue Receipts

    C. Revenue Deficit – Grants for Creation of Capital Assets

    D. Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments

    Code :

    A B C D

    (a) 1 2 3 4

    (b) 1 3 2 4

    (c) 4 2 3 1

    (d) 4 3 2 1

    Source: http://www.economicsdiscussion.net/budget/3-types-of-budget-deficits-and-their-measures-micro-economics/753

    92) Consider the following :

    1. Tughlaqabad Fort

    2. Bada Gumbad in Lodhi Garden

    3. Qutub Minar

    4. Fatehpur Sikri

    Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of building the above movements ?

    (a)  3, 1, 4, 2

    (b)  3, 1, 2, 4

    (c)  1, 3, 2, 4

    (d)  1, 3, 4, 2

    Source: http://www.culturalindia.net/indian-forts/tughlaqabad-fort.html , http://www.indianetzone.com/62/bara_gumbad.htm, http://asi.nic.in/asi_monu_whs_fatehpursikri.asp, http://asi.nic.in/asi_monu_whs_qutbminar.asp

     

    93) With regard to nature of  Mughal State, who among the following scholars argued that ‘the peculiar feature of the State in Mughal India was that it served not merely as the protective arm of the exploiting classes, but was itself the principal instrument of exploitation ?

    (a)  Irfan Habib

    (b)  Satish Chandra

    (c)  Athat Ali

    (d)  J. F. Richards

     

    94) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List – I

    [Type of Land]

    A. Urvara

    B. Maru

    C. Nadimatrika

    D. Devamatrika

    List – II

    [Meaning]

    1. Land watered by a river

    2. Fertile land

    3. Land watered by rain

    4. Desert land

    Code :

    A B C D

    (a) 2 1 4 3

    (b) 3 4 1 2

    (c) 3 1 4 2

    (d) 2 4 1 3

     

    95) Who was the editor of the journal Indian Social Reformer that was started in 1890 ?

    (a)  K. T. Telang

    (b)  Veeresalingam

    (c)  N.G. Chandavarkar

    (d)  K. N. Natarajan

    Source: http://www.india-seminar.com/1999/481/481%20guha.htm

     

    96) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List – I

    [Industrial Region]

    A. Leipzig

    B. Detroit

    C. Lorraine

    D. Cumberland

    List – II

    [Country]

    1. USA

    2. UK

    3. France

    4. Germany

    Code :

    A B C D

    (a) 2 1 3 4

    (b) 4 3 1 2

    (c) 4 1 3 2

    (d) 2 3 1 4

    Source: https://www.britannica.com/place/Leipzig-Germany https://www.britannica.com/place/Lorraine-region-France, https://www.britannica.com/place/Detroit

     

    97) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List – I

    [Mountain Range]

    A. Satpura

    B. Vindhya

    C. Aravalli

    D. Mahadeo

    List –II

    [Location In map]

    Code :

    A B C D

    (a) 4 2 1 3

    (b) 3 1 2 4

    (c) 3 2 1 4

    (d) 4 1 2 3

    Source: https://www.britannica.com/place/Vindhya-Range https://www.britannica.com/place/Aravalli-Range https://www.britannica.com/place/Mahadeo-Hills http://www.indiamapped.com/mountains-in-india/satpura-range/

     

    98) Which of the following statements in respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau are correct ?

    1.  The Deccan Plateau gradually rises from North to South.

    2. The Malwa Plateau dominates the Vindhyan scarps, forming the Eastern flank of the plateau.

    3. The Western Satpuras separate the Narmada and Tapi rivers.

    4. The Chota Nagpur Plateau is composed of Archaean granite and gneiss rocks.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a)  1, 2, 3 and 4

    (b)  1, 3 and 4 only

    (c)  2 and 4 only

    (d)  1 and 3 only

    Source: https://www.britannica.com/place/Malwa-Plateau http://www.deccanplateau.net/ https://www.britannica.com/place/Chota-Nagpur https://www.britannica.com/place/Satpura-Range

     

    99) Which one of the following criteria got the highest weight for determination of shares of States in the formula given by the 14th Finance Commission ?

    (a)  Population

    (b)  Income distance

    (c)  Area

    (d) Tax effort

    Source: http://www.prsindia.org/parliamenttrack/report-summaries/fourteenth-finance-commission-report-4075/

     

    100) A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be held up by the Rajya Sabha for how many weeks ?

    (a)  Two

    (b)  Three

    (c)  Four

    (d)  Five

    Source: http://www.parliamentofindia.nic.in/ls/intro/p5.htm

     

    101)  Constitutional safeguards available to Civil Servants are ensured by

    (a)  Article 310

    (b)  Article 311

    (c)  Article 312

    (d)  Article 317

    Source: http://www.legalserviceindia.com/article/l253-Doctrine-of-pleasure-and-its-proviso-article-311-of-Indian-Constitution.html

     

    102) A writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be detained illegally is

    (a)  Mandamus

    (b)  Habeas corpus

    (c)  Certiorari

    (d)  Prohibition

     

    103) Which one of the following cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha ?

    (a)  Constitutional Amendment

    (b)  CAG Report

    (c)  Annual Financial Statement

    (d)  Bill to alter the boundaries of any State

    Source: http://rajyasabha.nic.in/rsnew/practice_procedure/book1.asp

     

    104) The National Commission for Women was created by

    (a)  an amendment in the Constitution of India

    (b) a decision of the Union cabinet

    (c)  an Act passed by the Parliament

    (d)  an order of the President of India

    Source: http://ncw.nic.in/

     

    105) Whop among the following was the chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced in the Indian Judicial System ?

    (a)  M. Hidayatullah

    (b)  A. S. Anand

    (c)  A. M. Ahmadi

    (d)  P. N. Bhagwati

    Source: http://indiatoday.intoday.in/story/1986-chief-justice-p.n.-bhagwati-introduced-public-interest-litigation/1/205601.html

     

    106) The foul smell of urine of a healthy man having healthy food, when spilled on floor, is mainly due to the bacterial decomposition of

    (a)  urea into sulphur dioxide

    (b)  sugar into carbon dioxide

    (c)  lipids into methane

    (d)  urea into ammonia

    Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2995377/

    112) A joint Sitting of the Parliament is resorted to, for resolving the deadlock between two Houses of the Parliament for passing which of the following Bills ?

    1. Money Bill

    2. Constitutional Amendment Bill

    3. Ordinary Bill

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a)  1 only

    (b)  2 and 3 only

    (c)  3 only

    (d)  1, 2 and 3

    Source: http://www.constitution.org/cons/india/p05108.html

     

    113) Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

    1. The Directive Principles of State Policy are meant for promoting social and economic democracy in India.

    2. The Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the constitution of India are ordinarily subject to reasonable restrictions.

    3. Secularism is one of the basic features of Constitution of any country.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a)  1 only

    (b)  2 only

    (c)  1 and 2 only

    (d)  1, 2 and 3

    Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/pak-court-debates-possibility-of-secular-state/article7173516.ece

     

    114) The President of India is elected by an Electoral College comprising of elected members of which of the following ?

    1. Both the Houses of the Parliament

    2. The Legislative Assemblies of States

    3. The Legislative Councils of states

    4. The Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a)  1 and 2 only

    (b)  1, 2 and 3

    (c)  1, 2 and 4

    (d)  3 and 4

    Source: http://pib.nic.in/archieve/others/pr.html

    115) Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes under the provisions of the Constitution of India :

    1. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the Government educational institutions.

    2. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions aided by the State.

    3. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions aided by the State.

    4. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the minority educational institutions as described in Article 30.

    Which of the statements given above are correct ?.

    (a)  1 and 2 only

    (b)  3 and 4 only

    (c)  1, 2 and 3 only

    (d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

    Source: https://syskool.com/constitutional-provisions-sc-st/

     

    116) Article 21 of the constitution of India includes

    1. Rights of transgender

    2. Rights of craniopagus twins

    3. Rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child

    Select the correct answer using the code given below .

    (a)  1 only

    (b)  1 and 2 only

    (c)  2 and 3 only

    (d)  1, 2 and 3

    Source: https://indiankanoon.org/doc/193543132/

     

    117) Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly ?

    (a) N.G. Ayyangar

    (b)  K. M. Munshi

    (c)  B. N. Rau

    (d)  Muhammad Saadulah

    Source: https://www.pschunt.com/2015/03/members-of-the-drafting-committee.html

     

    118) Due to which of the following factors, the Industrial Revolution took place in England in the eighteenth century ?

    1. The discovery of coal and iron deposits.

    2. The discovery of steam power

    3. The introduction of railways

    4. The regular supply of raw materials

    Select the correct answer using  the code given below.

    (a)  1 and 2 only

    (b)  2, 3 and 4 only

    (c)  1 and 3 only

    (d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

    Source: http://www.preservearticles.com/2011090613097/what-are-the-causes-for-industrial-revolution-in-england.html

     

    119) Which of the following indictors have been used by the World Economic Forum to calculate Global Competitiveness Inde for 2016- 17 ?

    1. Efficiency enhancer subindex

    2. Innovation and sophistication factors subindex

    3. Life expectancy enhancer subindex

    Select the correct answer using  the code given below.

    (a)  2 and 3 only

    (b)  2 and 3 only

    (c)  1 and 3 only

    (d)  1, 2 and 3

    Source: http://www3.weforum.org/docs/GCR2016-2017/05FullReport/TheGlobalCompetitivenessReport2016-2017_FINAL.pdf

     

    120) In India the base year of the new GDP series has been shifted from 2004 – 05 to

    (a)  2007 – 08

    (b)  2008 – 09

    (c)  2010 – 11

    (d)  2011 – 12

    Source: http://eaindustry.nic.in/uploaded_files/Press_Release.pdf


    UPSC CDS 2 Answer Key 2017 with Questions for Paper 3 (Elementary Mathematics) – Set D

    Edit
    Q No.Ans.Q No.Ans.Q No.Ans.Q No.Ans.
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    10c35a60a85c
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    12c37b62d87c
    13d38a63a88d
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    15b40b65b90c
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    24b49b74b99d
    25a50b75b100d

    This is in sequence of SET D

    The option highlighted in orange color is the correct answer.

    1. Segment QR of length r is a tangent at Q to a circle of radius r with centre at P. What is the area of the part of the triangle PQR, which is outside the circular region?

    Answer (b)

    2) In a triangle ABC, AD is perpendicular on BC. If BAC = 90o, AB = c , BC = a, CA = b and AD = p, then which one of the following is correct?

    (a) p = abc

     

    (b) p2 = bc

     

    (c) p = bca

     

    (d) p = abc

     

    3) AB and CD are parallel chords of a circle 3cm apart. If AB = 4cm, CD = 10cm, then what is the radius of the circle?

    (a) 7 cm

    (b) 19 cm

    (c) 29 cm

    (d) 14 cm

     

    4) The diagonals of a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD intersect at P and the area of the triangle APB is 24 square cm. If AB = 8cm and CD = 5cm, then what is the area of the triangle CPD?

    (a) 24 square cm

    (b) 15 square cm

    (c) 12.5 square cm

    (d) 9.375 square cm

     

    5) In an equilateral triangle ABC, BD is drawn a perpendicular to AC. What is BD2 equal to?

    (a) AD2

    (b) 2AD2

    (c) 3AD2

    (d) 4AD2

     

    6) The distance between the centres of two circle having radii 9cm and 4cm is 13cm. What is the length of the direct common tangent of these circles?

    (a) 12 cm

    (b) 11 cm

    (c) 10 cm

    (d) 9.5 cm

     

    7) If PL, QM and RN are the altitudes of triangle PQR whose orthocentre is O, then Q is the orthocentre of the triangle?

    (a) OPQ

    (b) OQR

    (c) PLR

    (d) OPR

     

    8) In triangle ABC, C = 90o and CD is the perpendicular from C to AB.

    If (CD)-2 = (BC)-2 + (CA)-2 then which one of the following is correct?

    (a) BC. CD = AB. CA

    (b) AB. BC = CD . CA

    (c) CA2 + BC2 = 2(AD2 + CD2)

    (d) AB. CD = BC. CA

     

    9) If a point O in the interior of a rectangle ABCD is joined with each of the vertices A, B, C and D , then OB2 + OD2 will be equal to

    (a) 2OC2 + OA2

    (b) OC2 – OA2

    (c) OC2 + OA2

    (d) OC2 + 2OA2

     

    10) A cylinder of height 2x is circumscribed by a sphere of radius 2x such that the circular ends of the cylinder are two small circles on the sphere. What is the ratio of the curved surface area of the cylinder to the surface area of the sphere?

    (a) 3: 4

    (b) 3: 3

    (c) 3: 2

    (d) 3: 1

     

    11) A cylindrical vessel 60 cm in diameter is partially filled with water. A sphere 30 cm in diameter is gently dropped into the vessel and is completely immersed. To what further height will the water in the cylinder rise?

    (a) 20 cm

    (b) 15 cm

    (c) 10 cm

    (d) 5 cm

     

    12) The vertical angle of a right circular cone is π/2 and the slant height is 2 r cm. What is the volume of the cone in cubic cm?

    (a) πr3

    (b) 9πr3

    (c) πr33

    (d) 3πr3

     

    13) The radii of the frustum of a right circular cone are in the ratio 2 : 1. What is the ratio of the volume of the frustum of the cone to that of the whole cone?

    (a) 1: 8

    (b) 1: 4

    (c) 3: 4

    (d) 7: 8

     

    14) From a solid cylinder whose height is 8cm and of base radius 6cm, a conical cavity of height 8cm and of base radius 6cm is formed by hollowing out. What is the inner surface area of the cavity?

    (a) 6π square cm

    (b) 8π square cm

    (c) 10π square cm

    (d) 60π square cm

     

    15) A tent has been constructed which is in the form of a right circular cylinder surmounted by a right circular cone whose axis coincides with the axis of the cylinder. If the radius of the base of the cylinder is 50cm, the height of the cylinder is 10m and the total height of the tent is 15m, then what is the capacity of the tent in cubic meters?

    (a) 37500π

    (b) 87500π3

    (c) 26500π3

    (d) 25000π

     

    16) What is the value of α ( α 0) for which x2 – 5x + a and x2 – 7x + 2a have a common factor?

    (a) 6

    (b) 4

    (c) 3

    (d) 2

     

    17) How many numbers from 1 to 1000 are divisible by 2, 3, 4 and 5?

    (a) 16

    (b) 17

    (c) 32

    (d) None of these

     

    18) What are the factors of x3 + 4x2 – 11x – 30?

    (a) (x – 2) , (x + 3) and (x + 5)

    (b) (x + 2) , (x + 3) and (x – 5)

    (c) (x + 2) , (x -3) and (x + 5)

    (d) (x + 2), (x -3) and (x – 5)

     

    19) If x = 111 ….. 1  (20 digits), y = 333 …… 3 (10 digits) and z = 222 … 2 (10 digits), then what is x- y2z  equal to ?

    (a) 1/2

    (b) 1

    (c) 2

    (d) 3

     

    20) What is the positive value of m for which the roots of the equation 12x2 + mx + 5 = 0 are in the ratio 3: 2?

    (a) 510

    (b) 51012

    (c) 512

    (d) 125

     

    21) Let f(x) and g(x) be two polynomials (with real coefficients) having degrees 3 and 4 respectivley. What is of f(x) g(x) ?

    (a) 12

    (b) 7

    (c) 4

    (d) 3

     

    22) If 5x3 + 5x2 – 6x + 9 is divided by (x + 3) then the remainder is

    (a) 135

    (b) -135

    (c) 63

    (d) -63

     

    23) The product of two non-zero expressions is (x + y + z) p3.If their HCF is p2, then their LCM is

    (a) (x + y + z)

    (b) (x + y + z) p2

    (c) (x + y + z) p5

    (d) (x + y + z) p

     

    24) If the points P and Q represent the real numbers 0.83 and 0.62 on the number line, then the distance between P and Q is

    (a) 2190

    (b) 1990

    (c) 2190

    (d) 5690

     

    25) Sudhir purchased a chair with three consecutive discounts of 20%, 12.5% and 5%. The actual deduction will be

    (a) 33.5%

    (b) 30%

    (c) 32%

    (d) 35%

     

    26) A fruit seller has a certain number of mangoes of which 5% are rotten. He sells 75% of the remainder and he is left with 95 mangoes. How many mangoes did he have originally?

    (a) 500

    (b) 450

    (c) 400

    (d) 350

     

    27) If a train crosses a km-stone in 12 seconds how long will it take to cross 91 km – stones completely if its speed is 60 km/hr?

    (a) 1 hr 30 min

    (b) 1 hr 30 min 12 sec

    (c) 1 hr 51 min

    (d) 1 hr 1 min 3 sec

     

    28) In a 100 m race, A runs at 6 km/hr. If A gives B a start of 8m and still beats him by 9 seconds, what is the speed of B?

    (a) 4.6 km/hr

    (b) 4.8 km/hr

    (c) 5.2 km/hr

    (d) 5.4 km/hr

     

    29) The quotient of 8x3 – y3 when divided by 2xy + 4x2 + y2 is

    (a) 2x + y

    (b) x + 2y

    (c) 2x – y

    (d) 4x – y

     

    30) If (x + 2) is a common factor of x2 + ax + b and x2 + bx + a , then the ratio a : b is equal to

    (a)  1

    (b) 2

    (c) 3

    (d) 4

     

    31) If a triangle has sides 5, 13 and 12 units and θ is the acute angle of the triangle, then what is the value of (sinθ + cosθ)?

    (a) 513

    (b) 713

    (c) 1213

    (d) 1713

     

    32) If 0 < x < π2 , then (sinx + cosecx) is

    (a) > 2

    (b) < 2

    (c) 2

    (d) 2

     

    33) If sinθ = m2n2m2+n2   and 0 < θ <  π2  , then what is the value of cosθ ?

    (a) 2mnm2+n2

    (b)  2mnm2n2

    (c) m2+n22mn

    (d) m2n22mn

     

    34) If angle A of triangle ABC is 30o and the circum radius of the triangle is 10cm, then what is the length of side BC?

    (a)  5cm

    (b) 10 cm

    (c) 53 cm

    (d) 103 cm

     

    35)  If A = sin450-sin300cos450+cos600    and   B = sin450-tan450cosec450+cot450    , then which one of the following is correct?

    (a)  A = B

    (b) A > B > 0

    (c) A < B

    (d) B < A < 0

     

    36) If θ measured in radians is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time is 4 : 36 pm, then which one of the following is correct?

    (a) 5 < θ <  5

    (b) 2π5 < θ <  3π5

    (c) π5 θ  5

    (d) 15 θ  15

     

    37) Consider the following statements :

    1. If 450 < θ < 600, then sec2θ + cosec2θ = α2 for some real number α > 1
    2. If 00 < θ < 450, then  1+cosθ1-cosθ  =  x2  for some real number  x > 2
    3. If 00 < θ < 450, then  cosθ1-tanθ  + sinθ1-cotθ    2

    What is the number of true statements?

    (a)  zero

    (b) one

    (c) two

    (d) three

     

    38) Let AB represent a building of height h metre with A being its top, B being its bottom. Let A’B’ represent a tower of height (h + x) metre (x > 0) with A; being its top and B being its bottom. Let BB’= d metre. Let the angle of elevation of A’ as seen from A to be 450

    Consider the following statements :

    Statement I : h + x > d

    Statement II: The angle of depression of B as seen from A’ is less than 45o.

    Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    (a)l Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

    (b) Both Statements I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

    (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

     

    39) A man standing at a point X on the bank XY of a river that cannot be crossed observes a tower to be N 0o E on the opposite parallel bank. He then walks 200m along the bank to the point Y towards East and finds the tower to be N 0o W. From these observations, the  breadth of the river will be

    (Given that tan α = 2 and tan p = 0.5)

    (a) 60m

    (b) 70 m

    (c) 80 m

    (d) 90 m

     

    40) The value of sin10sin10  where 1o represents 1 radian is

    (a) Equal to 1

    (b) Less than 1

    (c) Greater than 1 but less than 2

    (d) Greater than 2

     

    41) The diameters of two given circles are in the ratio 12: 5 and the sum of their areas are equal to the area of a circle of diameter 65 cm. What are their radii?

    (a)  12 cm and 5 cm

    (b) 24 cm and 10 cm

    (c) 60cm and 25 cm

    (d) 30 cm and 12.5 cm

     

    42) A hollow cube is formed by joining individual squares. A rectangular cello tape of lengths 4cm and breadth 0.5 cm is used for joining each pair of edges. What is the total area of cello tape used?

    (a) 12 square cm

    (b) 24 square cm

    (c) 36 square cm

    (d) 48 square cm

     

    43) Two straight lines AB and AC include an angle. A circle is drawn at this angle which touches both these lines. One more circle is drawn which touches both these lines as well as the previous circle. If the area of the bigger circle is 9 times the area of the smaller circle, then what must be the angle A?

    (a) 45o

    (b) 60o

    (c) 75o

    (d) 90o

     

    44) An isosceles triangle is drawn outside on one of the sides of a square as base in such a way that the perimeter of the complete figure is 76  times the perimeter of the original square. What is the ratio of the area of the triangle to the area of the original square?

    (a) 1: 1

    (b) 2 : 3

    (c) 1: 2

    (d) 1 : 3

     

    45) What is the area of the triangle whose sides are 51 cm, 37cm and 20 cm?

    (a) 300 square cm

    (b) 305 square cm

    (c) 306 square cm

    (d) 307 square cm

     

    46) Two rectangular sheets of sizes 2π x 4 π and π x 5π are available. A hollow right circular cylinder can be formed by joining a pair of parallel sides of any sheet. What is the maximum possible volume of the circular cylinder that can be formed this way?

    (a) 4 π2

    (b) 8π2

    (c) 1.25 π2

    (d) 6.25 π2

     

    47) In a triangle, ABC, the medians AD and BE intersect at G. A line DF is drawn parallel to BE such that F is on AC. If AC = 9cm, then what is CF equal to?

    (a) 2.25 cm

    (b) 3 cm

    (c) 4.5 cm

    (d) 6 cm

     

    48) In a triangular PQR, X is a point on PR and Y is a point on QR such that PR = 10 cm,           RX = 4cm, YR = 2 cm, QR = 5cm. Which one of the following is correct?

    (a) XY is parallel to PQ

    (b) PQ = 2XY

    (c) PX = QY

    (d) PQ = 3XY

     

    49) Consider the following statements in respect of three straight lines A, B and C on a plane :

    1. If A and C are parallel and B and  C are parallel; then A and B are parallel.
    2. If A is perpendicular to C and B is perpenducular to C; then A and B are parallel.
    3. If the acute angle between A and C is equal to the acute angle between B and C; then A and B are parallel.

    Which of the above statements are correct?

    (a) 1, 2 and 3

    (b) 1 and 3 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 2 and 3 only

     

    50) The diagonals of a rhombus are of length 20cm and 48 cm. What is the length of a side of the rhombus?

    (a) 13 cm

    (b) 26 cm

    (c) 36 cm

    (d) 39 cm

     

    51) An arc of a circle subtends at an angle π at the centre. If the length of the arc is 22cm, then what is the radius of the circle? (Take π = 22/7)

    (a) 5 cm

    (b) 7 cm

    (c) 9 cm

    (d) 11 cm

     

    52) One-fifth of the area of a triangle ABC is cut off by a line DE drawn parallel to BC such that D is on AB and E is on AC. If BC = 10cm,then what is DE equal to ?

    (a)  5 cm

    (b)  2 5 cm

    (c) 35 cm

    (d) 4 5 cm

     

    53) There are 8 lines in a plane, no two of which are parallel. What is the maximum number of points at which they can intersect?

    (a) 15

    (b) 21

    (c) 28

    (d)  None of these

     

    54) A Closed polygon has six sides and one of the angles is 30o greater than each of the other five equal angles. What is the value of one of the equal angles?

    (a) 55o

    (b) 115o

    (c) 150o

    (d) 175o

     

    55) Consider the following statements:

    1. The point of intersection of the perpendicular bisectors of the sides of a triangle may lie outside the triangle.
    2. The outside of intersection of the perpendicular drawn from the vertices to the opposite sides of a triangle may be on two sides

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a)  1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

     

    For the next five (05) items that follow :

    In a University there are 1200 students studying four different subjects, Mathematics, Statistics, Physics and Chemistry. 20% of the total number of students are studying Mathematics, one-fourth of the total number of students are studying Physics, 320 students are studying Statistics and remaining students are studying Chemistry. Three fifths of the total number of students studying Chemistry are girls. 150 boys are studying Physics are boys 250 girls are studying Statistics.

     

    56)  What is the total number of boys studying Statistics and Physics?

    (a) 180

    (b) 240

    (c) 250

    (d) 310

     

    57) The number of girls studying Statistics is what percent (approximate) of the total number of students studying Chemistry?

    (a) 58.8

    (b) 73.5

    (c) 78.2

    (d) 80.6

     

    58) In which subjects is the difference between the number of boys and girls equal?

    (a) Mathematics and Chemistry

    (b) Statistics and Chemistry

    (c) Mathematics and Physics

    (d) Mathematics and Statistics

     

    59) What is the difference between the number of boys studying Mathematics and the number of girls studying Physics?

    (a) 20

    (b) 30

    (c) 60

    (d) 80

     

    60) What is the ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls?

    (a) 67: 83

    (b) 17: 26

    (c) 27: 19

    (d) 189: 179

     

    61) Let

    f(x) = a0 xn + a1 xn-1 + a2 xn-2 + …. an-1 x+a

    where a0, a1, a2, ……., an  are real numbers

    If f(x) is divided by (ax – b) then the remainder is

    (a)  f (ba)

    (b) f (ba)

    (c)  f (ab)

    (d)  f (ab)

     

    62) Consider the following numbers :

    1. 2222
    2. 11664
    3. 343343
    4. 220347

    Which of the above are not perfect squares?

    (a) 1, 2 and 3

    (b) 1, 2 and 4

    (c) 2, 3 and  4

    (d) 1, 3 and 4

     

    63) The product of the polynomials (x +2) , (x – 2),   (x3 – 2x2 + 4x – 8)  and  (x3 + 2x2 + 4x + 8) is

    (a) x8 – 256

    (b) (x4 – 16)2

    (c) (x4 + 16)2

    (d) (x2 – 4)4

     

    64) The factors of x (x + 2) (x + 3) (x + 5) – 72 are

    (a) x, (x + 3), (x + 4) and (x – 6)

    (b) (x – 1) , (x + 6) and (x2 – 2x – 12)

    (c) (x – 1) , (x + 6) and (x2 + 5x + 12)

    (d) (x + 1) , (x – 6) and (x2 – 5x – 12)

     

    65) If the HCF of polynomials

    f(x) = (x – 1) (x2 + 3x + a) and

    g(x) = (x + 2) (x2 + 2x + b) is (x2 + x – 2)

    then what are the values of a and b respectively

    (a) 2, 2

    (b) 2, – 3

    (c) -1 , -3

    (d) -2 , -1

     

    66) a, b, c and d are non-zero integers such that (ab) divides (cd). If a and c are coprime, then which one of the following is correct?

    (a) a is a factor of c

    (b) a is a factor of b

    (c) a is a factor of d

    (d) d is a factor of a

     

    67) If the roots of the equation

    a (b – c)x2 + b(c – a) x + c(a – b) = 0 are equal, then which one of the following is correct?

    (a) 2b = a + c

    (b) b2 = ac

    (c) 2b=1a+1c

    (d)  1b=1a+1c

     

    68) The non zero solution of the equation

    a-x2bxb-xc=c-xbb-x2cx  , where  b 0 , c 0 is

    (a) b2+acb2+c2

    (b)  b2-acb2c2

    (c) b2-acb2+c2

    (d)  b2+acb2c2

     

    69) If k is an integer , then

    x2 + 7x – 14 (k278)=0  has

    (a) Both integral roots

    (b) At least one integral root

    (c) No integral root

    (d) Both positive integral roots

     

    70) How many numbers between 500 and 1000 are divisible by 13?

    (a) 36

    (b) 37

    (c) 38

    (d) 39

     

    71) To maintain 8 cows for 60 days, a milkman has to spend Rs.6,400. To maintain 5 cows for n days, he has to spend Rs.4,800. What is the value of n?

    (a)  46 days

    (b) 50 days

    (c) 58 days

    (d) 72 days

     

    72) A student has to secure 40% of marks to pass an examination. He gets only 45 marks and fails by 5 marks. The maximum marks are

    (a)  120

    (b) 125

    (c) 130

    (d) 150

     

    73) What is the value of u in the system of equations 3(2u + v) = 7uv, 3(u + 3v) = 11uv?

    (a) 0

    (b) 1/4

    (c) 1/2

    (d) 1

     

    74) Five years ago, Ram was three times as old as Shyam. Four years from now, Ram will be only twice as old as Shyam. What is the present age of Ram?

    (a) 30 years

    (b) 32 years

    (c) 36 years

    (d) 40 years

     

    75) Ram buys 4 chairs and 9 stools for Rs.1,340. If he sells chairs at 10% profit and stools at 20% profit, he earns a total profit of Rs.188. How much money did he have to pay for the chairs?

    (a) Rs.200

    (b) Rs.400

    (c) Rs.800

    (d) Rs.1600

     

    76) Frequency density of a class is computed by the ratio

    (a) Class frequency to the class width

    (b) Class frequency to total frequency

    (c) Class frequency to total number of classes

    (d) Cumulative frequency up to that class to total frequency

     

    77) A small company pays each of its 5 categories ‘C’ workers Rs.20,000, each of its 3 categories ‘B’ workers Rs.25,000 and a category ‘A’ worker Rs.65,000. The number of workers earning less than the mean salary is

    (a) 8

    (b) 5

    (c) 4

    (d) 3

     

    78) A man travelled 12 km at a speed of 4km/hr and further 10km at a speed of 5km/hr. What was his average speed?

    (a) 4.4 km/hr

    (b) 4.5 km/hr

    (c) 5.0 km/hr

    (d) 2.5 km/hr

     

    79) The pie diagrams on the monthly expenditure of two families A and B are drawn with radii of two circles taken in the ratio 16: 9 to compare their expenditures.

    Which one of the following is the appropriate data used for the above mentioned pie diagrams?

    (a) Rs. 16,000 and Rs.9,000

    (b) Rs.8,000 and Rs.4,500

    (c) Rs.25,600 and Rs.8,100

    (d) Rs.4,000 and Rs.3,000

     

    80) Consider the following statements :

    Statement I: The value of a random variable having the highest frequency is mode.

    Statement II: Mode is unique.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

     

    (a) Both Statements I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

    (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

    (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

     

    81) Which one of the following is not correct?

    The proportion of various items in a pie diagram is proportional to the

    (a) Area of slices

    (b) Angles of slices

    (c) Lengths of the curved arcs of the slices

    (d) Perimeters of the slices

     

    82) The geometric mean of x and y is 6 and the geometric mean of x, y and z are also 6. Then the value of z is  

    (a) 12

    (b) 6

    (c) 6

    (d) 36

     

    83) The total number of live births in a specific locality during different months of a specific year was obtained from the office of the Birth Registrar. This set of data may be called.

    (a) Primary data

    (b) Secondary data

    (c) Recorded data

    (d) Countable data

     

    84) The heights (in cm) of 5 students area 150, 165, 161, 144 and 155. What are the values of mean and median (in cm) respectively?

    (a) 165 and 161

    (b) 155 and 155

    (c) 160 and 155

    (d) 155 and 161

     

    85) The average height of 22 students of a class is 140 cm and the average height of 28 students of another class is 152 cm. What is the average height of students of both the classes?

    (a)  144.32 cm

    (b) 145.52 cm

    (c) 146.72 cm

    (d) 147.92 cm

     

    86) Which one of the following is a correct statement ?

    (a)  {x : x + 5 = 5} = φ

    (b) {x : x + 5 = 5} = { 0 }

    (c) { x : x + 5 = 5} = 0

    (d) {x : x + 5 = 5}= { φ }

     

    87) If ab + bc + ca = 0, then what is the value of

    a2a2-bc+b2b2-ca+c2c2-ab ?

    (a) 3

    (b) 0

    (c) 1

    (d) -1

     

    88)  In an examination, 35% students failed in Hindi, 45% students failed in English and 20% students failed in both the subjects. What is the percentage of students passing in both the subjects?

    (a) 0

    (b) 20

    (c) 30

    (d) 40

     

    89) What is (x-y)(y-z)(z-x)(x-y)3+(y-z)3+(z-x)3 equal to ?

    (a) 13

    (b) 13

    (c) 3

    (d) -3

     

    90) The value of 1+1+1+…..

    (a) Equal to 1

    (b) Lies between 0 and 1

    (c) Lies between 1 and 2

    (d) is greater than 2

     

    91) If log10 6 = 0.7782 and log10 8 = 0.9031, then what is the value of log10 8000 + log10600?

    (a) 4.6813

    (b) 5.5813

    (c) 1.5813

    (d) 6.6813

     

    92) 30 men can complete a job in 40 days. However, after 24 days some men out of the assigned 30 left the job. The remaining people took another 40 days to complete the job. The number of men who left the job is

    (a) 24

    (b) 18

    (c) 12

    (d) 6

     

    93) 4 goats or 6 sheep can graze a field in 50 days. 2 goats and 3 sheep will graze it in

    (a) 200 days

    (b) 150 days

    (c) 100 days

    (d) 50 days

     

    94) A tap can fill a tub in 10 hours. After opening the tap for 5 hours it was found that a small outlet at the bottom of the tub was open and water was leaking through it. It was then immediately closed. It took 7 hours to fill the tub after closing the outlet. What time will be taken by the outlet to empty the full tub of water?

    (a) 35 hours

    (b) 25 hours

    (c) 20 hours

    (d) 17 hours

     

    95) A boy went to his school at a speed of 12 km/hr and returned to his house at a speed of            8 km/hr. If he has taken 50 minutes for the whole journey, what was the total distance walked?

    (a) 4 km

    (b) 8 km

    (c) 16 km

    (d) 20 km

     

    96) If 78 is divided into 3 parts which are proportional to 1, 1/3, 1/6, then the middle part is

    (a) 283

    (b) 13

    (c) 523

    (d) 553

     

    97) There are 350 boys in the first three standards. The ratio of the number of boys in first and second standards is 2 : 3, while that of boys in second and third standards is 4 : 5. What is the total number of boys in first and third standards?

    (a) 302

    (b) 208

    (c) 242

    (d) 230

     

    98) The difference between the compound interest (compounded annually) and simple interest on a sum of money deposited for 2 years at 5% per annum is Rs.15. What is the sum of money deposited?

    (a) Rs.6,000

    (b) Rs.4,800

    (c) Rs.3,600

    (d) Rs.2,400

     

    99) When prices rise by 12% if the expenditure is to be the same, what is the percentage of consumption to be reduced?

    (a)  16 23%

    (b) 10 27%

    (c) 16 35%

    (d) 10 57%

     

    100) A man rows down a river 18km in 4 hours with the stream and returns in 10 hours. Consider the following statements :

    1. The speed of the man against the stream is 1.8 km/hr
    2. The speed of the man in still water is 3.15 km/hr
    3. The speed of the stream is 1.35 km/hr

    Which of the above statements are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

     


    Expected UPSC CDS Cut Off 2017

    The CDS Exam was held on Nov 19, 2017 and CDS aspirants appeared for Various post under CDS Exam like IMA (100 vacancies), INA (45 vacancies), AFA (32 vacancies) and OTA (225 vacancies)

    This year CDS English and Mathematics was as usual questions are approachable. Paper 2 General Knowledge was relatively tougher this year, most of the questions are factual and demands subject expertise to answer. Few of the questions are asked from current affairs section too.

    So based on the vacancy and relative toughness of the question paper there may reduction in cut off marks for INA and AFA. There is reduction in vacancy as compared to last in INA, so the cut off marks may go higher. Similarly, the cut off marks for OTA can be reduced (as there is increase in vacancy with backlog).

    So our cut off prediction for CDS 2 2017 is as follows:

    Edit
    ServiceIMAINAAFAOTA
    Expected Cut Off115 ± 3 Marks85 ± 3 Marks122 ± 3 Marks82 ± 3 Marks

    UPSC CDS 2 Answer Key 2017 | CDS 2 Answer Key 2017 | CDS 2017 Answer Key | UPSC CDS Cut Off | CDS Answer Key | CDS 2 2017 Answer Key

    NeoStencil in collaboration with its top partnered IAS coaching institutes in Delhi will prepare UPSC CDS 2 Answer Key 2017 and UPSC CDS cut off. The Union Public Service Commission will be conducting CDS (Combined Defence Service) examination for recruitment into Defence Institutions on November 19, 2017. As always NeoStencil will be the first to announce the UPSC CDS 2017 Answer Key with explanations and sources as soon as the exam ceases, for the benefit of the candidates who would like to get a fair idea of how they performed and check their answers. CDS Answer Key 2017 will be helpful to assess your exam performance and check your eligibility for next level.

    UPSC CDS 2 Answer Key 2017 includes answers to Question Papers but also the complete question paper for candidates along with detailed explanations and their sources. UPSC CDS 2 Answer Key 2017 helps to determine UPSC CDS cut off based on a large number of students and experienced teachers from Delhi’s top IAS coaching institutes. Register now on NeoStencil and download the CDS 2 Answer Key 2017 with detailed explanations and their sources.

    The exam is being held to recruit for prestigious Defence Institutions namely, Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers Training Academy. The cut off will be decided by merit, based on GS, English and Mathematics (IMA, INA and AFA), and GK and English for OTA of CDS Exam. Candidates who have appeared for UPSC CDS Exam 2017 can check the UPSC CDS 2017 Answer Key on NeoStencil. 

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    NeoStencil offers Online IAS Classes through its unique LIVE Online platform for IAS/UPSC test preparation where you can access classrooms and test series program of the best teachers of India, from the comfort of your home. Students preparing for various Civil Services exam through NeoStencil and its associated institutes have secured 43 out of top 100 ranks and more than 500 total selections in the IAS Results in 2017. If you are interested in UPSC Online preparation from Top Institutes of IAS Coaching in Delhi, please feel free to check the multitude of courses we have for Live Online Classes for IAS and other state services. To read student testimonials, click here .


    UPSC CDS Syllabus, Exam Pattern & Notification 

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