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  • CDS 1 Answer Key | Question Paper, Answers & Cut Off

    UPSC CDS 1 Answer Key Login

    CDS Answer Key with Questions for Paper 1 (English)

    Question NoSet ASet BSet CSet D


    This is in Sequence Set D

    1. SI : First and foremost, there are order and safety in our civilization.

    S6: Nobody may come and break into my house and steal my goods.

    P : Thus in disputes between man and man, right has taken the place of might.

    Q : If today I have a quarrel with another man, I do not get beaten merely because I am physically weaker.

    R : I go to law, and the law will decide fairly between the two of us.

    S : Moreover, the law protects me from robbery and violence.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) R Q P S

    (b) S R Q P

    (c) Q R p s

    (d) P R S Q


    2. SI : In democratic countries, men are equal before the law.

    S6: And they live like this not for fun, but because they are too poor to afford another room.

    P : While some few people live in luxury, many have not enough to eat, drink and wear.

    Q : There arc many families of five or six persons who live in a single room.

    R : But the sharing-out of money which means the sharing-out of food and clothing and houses – is still very unfair.

    S : In this room they sleep and dress and wash and eat, and in this same room they die.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) R P Q S

    (b) P R S Q

    (c) Q S P R

    (d) S P R Q


    3‘ S’ : we”io7W “ Wi” bC 3 5W si”«

    ue ,ost our great leader.

    S6: Though he is no more wi’th us, the qualities he possessed and die ideals he cherished remain with us.

    p : To ihese lie added a feminine sensi- tiveness to atmosphere.

    Q : He was involved in the major events of his time.

    R : He participated in them all while maintaining the highest standards of public conduct.

    S : He was incomparably the greatest figure in our history – a man of dynamic force, intellectual power and profound vision.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P S R Q

    (b) R Q P S

    (c) R P Q S

    (d) S P Q R


    4. SI : It would be possible to adduce many examples showing what could be done with the limited means at our ancestor’s disposal in the way of making life comfortable.

    $6: I hope, in this essay, to make that connection manifest.

    P : What have comfort and cleanliness to do with politics, morals, and religion ?

    Q : But look more closely and you will discover that there exists the closest connection between the recent growth of comfort and the recent history’ of ideas.

    R : They show that if they lived in filth and discomfort, it was because filth and discomfort fitted in with their principles, political, moral and religious.

    S : At a first glance one would say that there could be no causal connection between arm chairs and democracies, sofas and the family system, hot baths and religious orthodoxy.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P R Q S

    (b) R P S Q

    (c) Q S R P

    (d) Q S P R


    5. SI : To most people, the term technology conjures up images of mills or machines.

    S6: It includes ways to make chemical reactions occur, ways to breed fish, plant forests or teach history.

    P : The classic symbol of technology is still the assembly line created by Henry Ford half a century ago.

    Q : The invention of the horse collar in the Middle Ages led to changes in agricultural methods and was as such a technological advance.

    R : Moreover, technology includes techniques, as well as the machines that may or may not be necessary to apply them.

    S : This symbol, however, has always been inadequate, for technology’ has always been more than factories and machines.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) S P R Q

    (b) P S Q R

    (c) R S P Q

    (d) Q S R P


    9. SI : Roderick Usher has always been a quiet person who talked little of himself

    S6: In the part of the country where he lived, the “House of Usher” had come to mean both the family and its ancestral mansion.

    P : Many of his ancestors had been

    famous for their artistic and musical abilities.

    Q : Others were known for their exceptional generosity and charity.

    R : Yet 1 did know that his family was an old one.

    S : So I did not know too much about him.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P Q R S

    (b) S R Q P

    (c) S P R Q

    (d) S R P Q



    10. SI : Mass production has increased the tendency to view things as useful rather than delightful.

    S6: Indeed a lowering of quality usually results when mass production is substituted for more primitive methods.

    P : These various things share nothing with the buttons except money value.

    Q : All the rest you wish to exchange for food, shelter, and many other things.

    R : Suppose you arc a manufacturer of buttons : however excellent your buttons may be, you do not want more than a few for your own use.

    S : And it is not even the money value of the buttons that is important to you : what is important is profit which may be increased by lowering their quality.

    The correct sequence should be

    (a) P Q R S

    (b) R Q P S

    (c) S P Q R

    (d) Q R P S




    Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.

    11. It was a mystery as to where the young girl had acquired such a naive belief.

    (a) credulous

    (b) childlike

    (c) wise

    (d) innocent



    12. It’s the only treatment suitable for


    (a)  insufficient

    (b) impertinent

    (c) befitting

    (d)  congenial



    13. Some of the criticisms which they had io put up were very unfair.

    (a) scold

    (b) scorn

    (c) appreciation

    (d) censure



    14. I would beg of all friends not to rush to Birla house nor try to dissuade me or be anxious about me.

    (a) certain

    (b) composed

    (c) careless

    (d) heedless



    15. It could not have been expected that, with such a bent of mind of the people, there should have been much activity for the cultivation of the physical sciences in this part of the world.

    (a) dull

    (b) dormant

    (c) indolence

    (d) idle



    16. Indian culture has been, from time immemorial, of a peculiar cast and mould.

    (a) common

    (b) customary

    (c) natural

    (d) familiar



    17. The princess char0110^ was lhc c<-*ntrc rif attraction today.

    (a) enchanting

    (b) hypnotic

    (c) repulsive

    (d) fascinating



    18. Macbeth is a/an abominable Figure.

    (a) abhorrent

    (b) repugnant

    (c) reputable

    (d) attractive



    19. Terrorists profess fanatical ideology

    (a) bigoted

    (b) militant

    (c) moderate

    (d) fervid



    20. Rakesh is vulnerable to political pressure

    (a) weak

    (b) unguarded

    (c) exposed

    (d) resilient




    Directions :

    Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with lout words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most approprise for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    One of india’s greatest musicians is Ms S Kreatest musicians is M.S. Subbulakshmi, affectionately known to most people cr singing has brought_______.

    21. (a) sorrow to millions of people not only

    (b) joy

    (c) boredom

    (d) pain


    22. all parts of India, but in ______

    (a) over





    23. around the world as well. ______

    (a) strange countries

    (b) unknown

    (c) other

    (d) familiar


    24. October 1966 Subbulakshmi was invited to_______

    (a) Within

    (b) On

    (c) In

    (d) By


    25. in New’ York, where people of_______

    (a) dance

    (b) sing

    (c) speak

    (d) enjoy


    26. countries listened to her music______

    (a) many foreign

    (b) few

    (c) backward

    (d) all


    27. This was one of the greatest___________

    (a) attentively.

    (b) quietly.

    (c) indifferently.

    (d) boldly.


    28. ever given to any musician. For________






    29. together M.S. kept that international______________

    (a) seconds

    (b) minutes

    (c) hours

    (d) days


    30. spell-bound with the beauty of her voice and her style of singing

    (a) spectator

    (b) audience

    (c) viewer

    (d) businessmen


    31. The Second Anglo-Maratha War had shattered the_______

    (a) power

    (b) dignity

    (c) time

    (d) patience


    32. Maratha chiefs, but not their spirit. The____________

    (a) disappearance

    (b) empowerment

    (c) loss

    (d) disappointment


    33.freedom rankled in their hearts. They made a last (a) horrible attempt____________

    a) horrible attempt

    (b) desperate

    (c) poor

    (d) strong


    34. The lead to regain their independence and old in 1817.

    (a) prestige

    (b) army

    (c) rebellion

    (d) infantry


    35. in organizing a united front of the Maratha chiefs was taken by the Peshwa who was smarting under the________ control exercised by the British Resident.

    (a) pleasant

    (b) satisfying

    (c) rigid

    (d) orthodox




    Given below arc some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression

    36. A hot potato

    (a) A dish to relish when it is hot

    (b) A very important person in a gathering

    (c) An issue which is disputed, and catching the attention of people

    (d) A way of thinking thinking what someone is



    37. You snooze, you lose.

    (a) Don’t take it lightly

    (b) Don’t be over-enthusiastic

    (c) Don’t hesitate to do it

    (d) Don’t be pessimistic



    38. 1 don’t buy it.

    (a) I don’t believe it

    (b) I have no money

    (c) I summarize it

    (d) I don’t need it



    39. My two cents.

    (a) My money

    (b) My opinion

    (c) My decision

    (d) My explanation



    40. Out__of (he blue.

    (a) Undoubtedly

    (b) Unexpectedly

    (c). Unbelievably

    (d) Unconcerned



    41. What a small world

    (a) What a coincidence

    (b) What a challenging task

    (c) What a narrow space

    (d) What a beautiful place



    42.Down the road.

    (a) In future

    (b) In the past

    (c) At present



    43.Raising eyebrows.

    (a) To show surprise

    (b) Criticize

    (c) Support

    (d) Instruct



    44. Step up the plate.

    (a) Take control

    (b) Take a job

    (c) Take a responsibility

    (d) Take an opportunity



    45. The Holy Grail.

    (a) The pious place of worship

    (b) An important object or goal

    (c) A very important place

    (d) Someone’s destination of life



    46. You scratch my back. I’ll scratch yours.

    (a) Mutual favour

    (b) Mutual understanding

    (c) Mutual respect

    (d) Mutual disliking



    47. At the drop of a hat.

    (a) Without any hesitation

    (b) When attempt fails and it’s time to start all over

    (c) To further a loss with mockery

    (d) Judging other’s intentions too much



    48. Ball is in your court.

    (a) Be happy at the dance / ball room

    (b) It’s up to you to make the decision

    (c) A very powerful person

    (d) Not speaking directly about an issue



    49. Best of both worlds.

    (a) A happy person who is the best with all

    (b) All the advantages

    (c) To take on a task that is way too big

    (d) Someone whom everybody likes



    50. Costs an arm and a leg.

    (a) Severe punishment to someone

    (b) Too much consciousness about one’s body

    (c) Two difficult alternatives

    (d) Something very expensive



    51. In the face of the overwhelming mass of evidence against hint, we cannot

    ______ him of the crime.

    (a) punish

    (b) absolve

    (c) release

    (d) ignore



    52. I hope that the rain will_______ lor

    our picnic tomorrow.

    (a) keep off

    (b) put off

    (c) set back

    (d) stay out



    53. After the marathon, some of the

    competitors felt completely________________

    (a) cut up

    (b) done in

    (c) done out

    (d) run out



    54. Scarcely _____________ the teacher entered the class when he heard the noise.

    (a) did

    (b) has

    (c) had

    (d) will have



    55. I do not think he will ever ______________ the shock of his wife’s death

    (a) get by

    (b) get off

    (c) get through

    (d) get over



    56. It is no use in crying over _________

    (a) spoilt milk

    (b) spirited milk

    (c) split nrilk

    (d) spilt milk



    57 You must go to the station now. your’ brother———- go just yet as his leaves after three hours.

    (a) shouldn’t

    (b) mustn’t

    (c) wouldn’t

    (d) needn’t


    58. Every rash driver becomes a _ _________killer.




    (d) powerful



    59. The country owes a deep debt of__________for the freedom fighters.

    (a) patriotism

    (b) sincerity





    60. The whole lot of young men was enthusiastic but your friend alone was_____________



    (c) a wet blanket




    Q.61) A truly respectable old man is a ripe person

    a) senior

    b) mature

    c) rejected

    d) repelled



    Q.62) The soldiers repulsed the enemy

    a) defeated

    b) destroyed

    c) rejected

    d) repelled



    Q.63) She deftly masked her feelings

    a) hid

    b) flaunted

    c) oblique

    d) obscured



    Q.64) Vendors must have licence

    a) One who drives a car

    b) One who works in a hospital

    c) One who is employed in food serving

    d) One engaged in selling



    Q.65) They will not admit children under fourteen

    a) avow

    b) receive

    c) accept

    d) concede



    Q.66) The jewels have been stolen from her bedroom

    a) embezzled

    b) asserted

    c) yielded

    d) abdicated



    Q.67) The soldiers showed an exemplary courage

    a) flawed

    b) faulty

    c) ideal

    d) boisterous



    Q.68) They served fruits after the dinner

    a) assisted

    b) obliged

    c) waited

    d) offered



    Q.69) The committee should recommend his name to the government

    a) praise

    b) advise

    c) counsel

    d) suggest



    Q.70) Can medicines save us from death?

    a) hide

    b) rescue

    c) protect

    d) liberate




    Directions :

    Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely [a], [b], [c] and . You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

    Q.71) the British manufacturers popularity of Indian textiles were jealous of the

    P Q R

    from the very beginning


    The correct sequence should be

    a) P Q R S

    b) S P Q R

    c) S P R Q

    d) Q R S P


    Q.72) dress fashions changed and light cotton of the English textiles began to replace

    P Q R

    the coarse woolens


    The correct sequence should be

    a) P R S Q

    b) R S P Q

    c) Q P R S

    d) S P R Q


    Q.73) put pressure on their government Indian goods in England the British manufacturers

    P Q R

    to restrict and prohibit


    The correct sequence should be

    a) P Q R S

    b) S P R Q

    c) R P S Q

    d) Q R S P


    Q.74) however still held their own in foreign markets in spite of these laws

    P Q R

    Indian silk and cotton textiles


    The correct sequence should be

    a) Q P R S

    b) S P R Q

    c) S R P Q

    d) R P S Q


    Q.75) and it led to rapid economic development the Industrial Revolution

    P Q

    transformed the British society in a fundamental manner

    R S

    The correct sequence should be

    a) S P R Q

    b) Q P R S

    c) Q R S P

    d) S R P Q


    Q.76) Muhammad Iqbal the philosophical and religious outlook of people through his poetry

    P Q

    profoundly influenced one of the greatest poets of modern India

    R S

    The correct sequence should be

    a) Q R S P

    b) S R Q P

    c) S R P Q

    d) S P R Q


    Q77) to accept any of the important disillusionment demands of the nationalists produced

    P Q R

    the failure of the British government


    The correct sequence should be

    a) S P R Q

    b) P Q R S

    c) S R Q P

    d) Q R P S


    Q.78) showed that a backward the rise of modern Japan after 1868

    P Q R

    Asian country could develop itself without Western control


    The correct sequence should be

    a) P Q R S

    b) S R Q P

    c) P R Q S

    d) Q R P S


    Q.79) and the current Hindu emphasis and urged the people to imbibe the spirit of free thinking

    P Q

    on rituals, ceremonies and superstitions Vivekananda condemned the caste system

    R S

    The correct sequence should be

    a) P Q R S

    b) S P R Q

    c) S P Q R

    d) R P S Q


    Q.80) Mr. John who was hardly six months old Charles as his son adopted

    P Q R S

    The correct sequence should be

    a) S Q R P

    b) P S Q R

    c) R S P Q

    d) P R S Q



    Directions :

    Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled [a], [b] and [c]. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter ie., [a] or [b] or [c]. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as .

    Q.81) The best way in which you can open the bottle is by putting it into hot water first

    [a]                           [b]                                    [c]

    No error

    Q.82) Somebody who I enjoy reading is Tagore No error

    [a]               [b]                          [c]             

    Q.83) Electricity companies are working throughout days and nights to repair the damage

    [a]                                  [b]                                                     [c]

    No error

    Q.84) The student’s test results were pleasant No error

    [a]                         [b]           [c]                   

    Q.85) The thirds of the book were rubbish No error

    [a]                     [b]      [c]         

    Q.86) You will be  answerable for the court with any lies you have told No error

    [a]                                  [b]                         [c]                                 

    Q.87) She felt terribly anxious for have to sing in front of such a large audience No error

    [a]                                      [b]                                     [c]                                 

    Q.88) I don’t agree  with smacking children  if they do something wrong  No error

    [a]                          [b]                                       [c]                                         

    Q.89)     The fruit               can be made      to jam                   No error

    [a]                              [b]                    [c]                           


    Q.90)     I asked him         what he                has done             No error

    [a]                              [b]                       [c]                           


    Q.91)     There have been a tornado watch             issued for Texas country

    [a]                                                                         [b]

    until eleven O’clock tonight         No error



    Q.92)  Although the Red Cross accepts blood from the donors


      the nurses will not leave you give blood,   if you have just had cold                No error

    [b]                                                          [c]                                              


    Q.93) A prism is used to refract white light            so it spreads out      

    [a]                                                          [b]


    in a continuous spectrum                 No error



    Q.94)  Because of the movement of a glacier,   the form      of the Great Lakes was very slow

    [a]                                                            [b]                                        [c]

    No error


    Q.95)  The new model costs         twice more than               last year’s model              No error

    [a]                                          [b]                                          [c]                              


    Q.96)     Gandhiji always regretted for the fact     that people gave him adulation while what he wanted

    [a]                                                                                          [b]

    was acceptance of his way of life               No error




    Q.97)  The party                was ousted in power      after twelve years            No error

    [a]                                          [b]                                          [c]                             



    Q.98)  He was     held in  the prevention of Terrorism act                 No error

    [a]                                           [b]                                                             


    Q.99)  He has great fascination   for each and everything                 that are connected with drama

    [a]                                          [b]                                                                          [c]

    No error





    Q.100)   It’s no secret      that the President wants to         have a second term of office       No error

    [a]                                     [b]                                                          [c]                                              



    Directions :

    In this section you have few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First , read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.



    Overpopulation is the most pressing of India’s numerous and multi-faceted problems. In fact it has caused equally complex problems such as poverty, undernourishment, unemployment and excessive fragmentation of land, Indisputably, this country has been facing a population explosion of crisis dimensions. It has largely diluted the fruits of the remarkable economic progress that the nation has made during the last four decades or so. The entire battle against poverty is thwarted by the rapid increase in the population. The tragedy is that while over population accentuates poverty, the country’s stark poverty itself is in many areas a major cause of over population


    Q.101)   What is the irony behind the over population of India?

    a) Over population gives birth to poverty, which [poverty] itself is the cause of over population

    b) Under nourishment and unemployment are outcomes of flawed economic progress

    c) Fragmentation of land is leading to over population

    d) Fruits of the remarkable economic progress are trickling down to the poor


    Q.102)       What is the general tone of the passage?

    a) funny / humorous

    b) sombre

    c) didactic

    d) tragic


    Q.103) What, in the author’s view, severely affects the economic growth of our country?

    a) poverty

    b) illiteracy

    c) over population

    d) None of the above

    Q.104)       What, according to the author, is the biggest reason behind over population?

    a) under nourishment

    b) unemployment

    c) excessive fragmentation of land

    d) poverty


    Q.105)   “It has largely diluted the fruits of the remarkable economic progress”. Find antonym of the underlined word

    a) coalesced

    b) compounded

    c) cheapened

    d) consolidated



    To eat and not be eaten – that’s the imperative of a caterpillar’s existence. The leaf roller reduces its risks of being picked off by predators by silking together a temporary shelter  in which to feed and rest. Adopting a different line of defense, the jelly slug extrudes a sticky translucent coating that may foul the mouth parts of marauding ants. For its part, the aquatic larva, by its watery element, fashions a portable hideout from fragments of aquatic leaves. Cutting a serpentine trail as it feeds on tender young leaves, the minute citrus leaf miner spends its entire larval life inside its host plant, thus keeping its appetizing body safely under wraps.


    Q.106) Which varieties of caterpillars ‘build’ shelters to protect themselves?

    a) Leaf roller and aquatic larva

    b) Leaf roller and jelly slug

    c) Jelly slug and aquatic larva

    d) Jelly slug and citrus leaf miner


    Q.107)   Which one of the following caterpillars produces a sticky covering?

    a) Leaf roller

    b) Jelly slug

    c) Aquatic larva

    d) Citrus leaf miner


    Q.108)   Which one of the following pairs of words in the passage describes enemies of the caterpillar?

    a) Serpentine and host

    b) Predator and marauding

    c) Serpentine and marauding

    d) Predator and host

    Q.109) Which one of the following makes itself unpalatable?

    a) Leaf roller

    b) Jelly slug

    c) Aquatic larva

    d) Leaf miner

    Q.110) The main idea of the passage is that caterpillars

    a) like to eat a lot

    b) have to protect themselves while feeding

    c) are good to eat

    d) are not good to eat


    I have always opposed the idea of dividing the world into the Orient and the Occident. It is, however, the tremendous industrial growth that has made the West what it is, I think the difference, say , between India and Europe in the 12th or 13th century would not have been very great. Differences have been intensified by this process of industrialization which has promoted material well being tremendously and which is destroying the life of the mind, which is in a process of deterioration, chiefly because the environment that has been created by it does not give time or opportunity to individuals to think. If the life of the mind is not encouraged, then inevitably civilization collapses.

    Q.111) The words “the Orient and the Occident” mean

    a) the West and the East respectively

    b) the East and the West respectively

    c) the North and the South respectively

    d) the South and the North respectively


    Q.112) The author believes that the difference between India and Europe in the 12th or 13th century was not very great because

    a) Indians and Europeans mixed freely

    b) Indians imitated the European way of living

    c) Europeans imitated the Indian way of living

    d) Industrialization had not yet taken place


    Q.113) In the opinion of the author, Industrialization is

    a) an absolute blessing

    b) an absolute curse

    c) neither a blessing nor a curse

    d) more of a curse than a blessing


    Q.114) The author says that the mental life of the world is in a process of deterioration because the modern generation is

    a) endowed with low mental powers

    b) too lazy to exert its mental powers

    c) taught that physical activities are more important than mental

    d) brought up in an environment unfavourable to the growth of the mental life


    Q.115) The title that best expresses the central idea of the passage is

    a) difference between the Occident and the Orient

    b) impact of Industrialization on our civilization

    c) advantages of Industrialization

    d) disadvantages of Industrialization



    In Delhi, it was forbidden by the law, at one time, to take a Dog into public vehicle. One day, a lady, accompanied by a pet dog, entered a bus. Wishing to evade the law, she placed her tiny dog in her dress pocket. It so happened that the person next to this lady was a pickpocket; and during the journey he carefully placed his hand into her pocket in search of her purse. Great was the horror to find instead of a pair of sharp teeth inserted into his fingers. His exclamation of pain and surprise draw the attention of other passengers to him

    Q.116) Once the law in Delhi did not permit the people to

    a) carry dogs into private vehicles

    b) board a bus a without ticket

    c) carry dogs into a public vehicle

    d) carry animals with them


    Q.117) In order to evade the law, the lady

    a) hid the dog under the seat

    b) got off the bus

    c) gave the dog to a fellow passenger

    d) put the dog in her pocket


    Q.118) The pick pocket travelling with the lady

    a) reported the matter to the conductor

    b) put his hand in her pocket

    c) took out the dog

    d) asked the lady to get off


    Q.119) Which one of the following correctly expresses the meaning of “wishing to evade the law”?

    a) Wish to avoid following the law

    b) Desire to follow the law blindly

    c) Reluctance to break the law

    d) Wish to change the law


    Q.120) Why did the pick pocket exclaim with pain?

    a) He was hit by the lady

    b) He was caught by the fellow passengers

    c) He was bitten by the dog

    d) He fell of the bus

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    Download CDS 1 Answer Key Paper 1 in PDF Format


    CDS Answer Key with Questions for Paper 2 (General Knowledge

    Question NoSet ASET BSet CSET D

    What did you think of the exam? We’d love to hear from you. Do leave your feedback in the Comments Section.

    This is in Sequence Set D

    Directions :

    The following seven[7] items consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.
    Code :
    [a] Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
    [b] Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
    [c] Statement I is true but Statement II is false
    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

    Q.1) Statement I :

    By far the most common topographic form in a Karst terrain is the sinkhole

    Statement II :

    Topographically, a sinkhole is a depression that varies in depth from less than a matter to few hundred meters.

    Answer B


    Q.2) Statement I :

    Incised meanders are formed in the mature stage of a river

    Statement II :

    Answer D


    Incised meanders are characterized by rejuvenation and upliftment of land.

    Q.3) Statement I :

    Portions of glacial troughs may exhibit remarkably flat floors.

    Statement II :

    The flat floor in a glacial trough is produced by uniform glacial erosion.

    Answer A


    Q.4) Statement I :

    In Tundra climate, biodiversity is comparatively less

    Statement II :

    Tundra climate has less reproductive warm period

    Answer B


    Q.5) Statement I :

    Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun and the rotation of the Earth

    Statement II :

    The Earth rotates from west to east.

    Answer B


    Q.6) Statement I :

    A person may suffer from tuberculosis if she/he frequently visits crowded place.

    Statement II :

    Bacteria of tuberculosis spread through droplets by sneezing or coughing.

    Answer D


    Q.7) Statement I :

    Bioaccumulation is a process of progressive accumulation of heavy metals and pesticides in an organism

    Statement II :

    Large fishes of the pond are found to have higher concentration of pesticides than planktons of the same period.

    Answer B


    Q.8) Which one of the following is a true fish as per the biological system of classification?

    a) Silver fish
    b) Jelly fish
    c) Cuttle fish
    d) Flying fish


    Q.9) In which one of the following types of connective tissues in animals does fat get stored?

    a) Adipocyte
    b) Chondrocyte
    c) Osteocyte
    d) Reticulocyte


    Q.10) Which one of the following pairs about organ/part that helps in locomotion is not correctly matched?

    a) Euglena : Flagellum
    b) Paramecium : Cilia
    c) Nereis : Pseudopodia
    d) Starfish: Tube feet


    Q.11) Lysosome is formed from which of the following cell organelles?

    a) Nucleus
    b) Endoplasmic reticulum
    c) Golgi bodies
    d) Ribosomes


    Q.12) A protein is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum bound ribosomes and it targets to the inner thylakoid space of chloroplast. How many double layered membrane layers it has to pass to reach its destination?
    a) 2
    b) 3
    c) 4
    d) 5


    Q.13) Which of the following causes adiabatic temperature changes in atmosphere?

    a) Deflection and advection
    b) Latent heat of condensation
    c) Expansion and compression of the air
    d) Partial absorption of solar


    Q.14) Which one of the following is applicable to collision-coalescence process of precipitation?

    a) Clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level
    b) Clouds which extend beyond the freezing level
    c) All types of clouds
    d) Cirrocumulus cloud


    Q.15) Which one of the following places of India experiences highest atmospheric pressure during winter?

    a) Jaisalmer
    b) Leh
    c) Chennai
    d) Guwahati

    Ref: Among the option Leh will have minimum Temperature so it will have highest pressure.

    Q.16) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List –I
    [Hypothesis / Theory]
    A. Planetesimal hypothesis
    B. Thermal contraction theory
    C. Geosynclinal Orogen theory
    D. Hypothesis of sliding continent
    1. Kober
    2. Chamberlin
    3. Daly
    4. Jeffreys
    Code :

    A B C D

    a) 2 4 1 3
    b) 2 1 4 3
    c) 3 1 4 2
    d) 3 4 1 2


    Q.17) Bright light is found to emit from photographer’s flashgun. This brightness is due to the presence of which one of the following noble gases?

    a) Argon
    b) Xenon
    c) Neon
    d) Helium


    Q.18) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a compound?

    a) Composition is variable
    b) All particles of compound are of only one type
    c) Particles of compound have two or more elements
    d) Its constituents cannot be separated by simple physical methods.


    Q.19) Which of the following substances cause temporary hardness in water?

    1. Mg[HCO3]2
    2. Ca[HCO3]2
    3. CaCl2
    4. MgSO4

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    a) 3 and 4
    b) 2 and 3
    c) 1 and 4
    d) 1 and 2


    Q.20) Which one of the following elements will be an isobar of calcium if the atomic number of calcium is 20 and its mass number is 40?

    a) Element with 20 protons and 18 neutrons
    b) Element with 18 protons and 19 neutrons
    c) Element with 20 protons and 19 neutrons
    d) Element with 18 protons and 22 neutrons


    Q.21) Which of the following represents a relation for heat lost = heat gained ?

    a) Principle of thermal equilibrium
    b) Principle of colors
    c) Principle of calorimetry
    d) Principle of vaporization


    Q.22) Two metallic wires made from copper have same length but the radius of wire 1 is half of that of wire 2. The resistance of wire 1 is R. If both the wires are joined together in series, the total resistance becomes

    a) 2R
    b) R/2
    c) 5/4 R
    d) ¾ R


    Q.23) When the Sun is near the horizon during the morning or evening, it appears reddish. The phenomenon that is responsible for this observation is

    a) reflection of light
    b) refraction of light
    c) dispersion of light
    d) scattering of light


    Q.24) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

    A. Cirrus
    B. Stratus
    C. Nimbus
    D. Cumulus

    1. Rain giving
    2. Feathery appearance
    3. Vertically growing
    4. Horizontally spreading
    Code :

    A B C D
    a) 3 1 4 2
    b) 2 1 4 3
    c) 2 4 1 3
    d) 3 4 1 2


    Q.25) Which one of the following is not an exclusive right of the concerned coastal nations over Exclusive Economic Zone [EEZ]?

    a) Survey and exploitation of mineral resources of ocean deposits
    b) Exploitation of marine water energy and marine organisms including fishing
    c) Conservation and management of marine resources
    d) Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables


    Q.26) In which one of the following groups of States in India is the Integrated Coastal Zone Management [ICZM] Project being implemented as a pilot investment?

    a) Gujarat, Kerala and Goa
    b) Kerala , Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
    c) Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal
    d) Maharashtra , Andhra Pradesh and TamilNadu


    Q.27) Which of the following statements about the National Water Academy [NWA] is/are correct?
    1. The primary objective of the NWA is to function as Centre of Excellence in training for in-service engineers from Central and State organizations on various aspects of water resource planning.
    2. The NWA is located in New Delhi

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2


    Q.28) A wire of copper having length l and area of cross section A is taken and a current I is flown through it. The power dissipated in the wire is P. If we take an aluminium wire having same dimensions and pass the same current through it, the power dissipated will be

    a) P
    b) < P
    c) > P
    d) 2P


    Q.29) The pressure of a fluid varies with depth h as P = Po + gh, where r is the fluid density. This expression is associated with

    a) Pascal’s law
    b) Newton’s law
    c) Bernouli’s principle
    d) Archimede’s principle


    Q.30) Consider the following constituent gases of the atmosphere

    1. Argon
    2. Neon
    3. Helium
    4. Carbon dioxide

    Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of the above gases in terms of the volume percentage?

    a) 1-3-2-4
    b) 1-4-2-3
    c) 4-2-3-1
    d) 2-4-1-3


    Q.31) Which one of the following Indian States has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population to its total population ?

    a) Mizoram

    b) Nagaland

    c) Meghalaya

    d) Arunachal Pradesh



    Q.32) Extrusive volcanoes are not found in which one of the following mountains ?

    a) Alaska

    b) Rocky

    c) Andes

    d) Himalayas

    Q.33) Which one of the following crops is not cultivated in Karewas, the lacustrine deposits of sand, clay, loam, silt and boulders ?

    a) Saffron

    b) Almond

    c) Walnut

    d) Ling nut



    Q.34) Consider the following tributaries of river Ganga :

    1. Gandak

    2. Kosi

    3. Ghaghara

    4. Gomti

    Which one of the following is the correct order of the above rivers from east to west ?

    a) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2

    b) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4

    c) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4

    d) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3



    Q.35) Which one of the following statements about “Niryat Bandhu Scheme” is correct ?

    a) It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs.

    b) It is a scheme for crop protection

    c) It is a scheme for the vulnerable section of the society.

    d) It is a scheme for monitoring rural poor.



    Q.36) Which one of the following statements about the Deen Dayal Upadhaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana [DDU – GKY] is not correct ?

    a) It is a placement-linked exclusively skill training programme exclusively for rural girls

    b) It aims to convert India’s demographic surplus into a demographic dividend.

    c) The scheme aims to benefit more than 55 million poor rural folk.

    d) It is a generational poverty alleviation programme.



    Q.37) Where is Hambantota Port located ?

    a) Iran

    b) Sri-Lanka

    c) Japan

    d) Pakistan



    Q.38) The projects under Coastal Berth Scheme of the flagship Sagarmala Programme are distributed over how many States ?

    a) Eight

    b) Ten

    c) Twelve

    d) Fourteen



    Q.39) Which one of the following statements about the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change is not correct ?

    a) The fund is meant to assist national and State level activities to meet the cost of adaption measures.

    b) This scheme has been taken as a Central Sector Scheme

    c) The Indian Council of Agricultural Research is the national implementing entity for the fund.

    d) The scheme has been in force since 2015 – 2016.



    Q.40) “SAMPRITI – 2017” is a joint military exercise between armed forces of India and

    a) Bhutan

    b) Bangladesh

    c) Pakistan

    d) Myanmar



    Q.41) The judgment of the Supreme Court of India in the Vishakha Case pertains to

    a) sexual harassment in the work-place

    b) Sati

    c) dowry death

    d) rape



    Q.42) The first BRICS Summit, after the inclusion of South Africa, was held at

    a) Brasilia

    b) Sanya

    c) Yekaterinburg

    d) Durban



    Q.43) Who deciphered the Brahmi and Kharoshthi scripts ?

    a) Piyadassi

    b) Colin Mackenize

    c) Alexander Cunningham

    d) James Prinsep



    Q.44) Which of the following is/are the feature[s] of the Brahmadeya Grants during c 600 – 1200 AD ?

    1. Their creation meant a renunciation of actual or potential sources of revenue by the State.

    2. These grants could vary from a small plot to several villages.

    3. Most grants were made in unsettled areas.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a) 1 only

    b) 2 and 3 only

    c) 1 and 2 only

    d) 1, 2 and 3


    Q.45) Who is the author of Manimekatai ?

    a) Kovalan

    b) Sathanar

    c) Ilango Adigal

    d) Tirutakkatevar



    Q.46) Which one of the following statements about the Elephanta Island is correct ?

    a) It was given its name by the British after a large elephant structure located there.

    b) It contains one large cave.

    c) it is well-known for a spectacular carving of Vishnu described in the Vishnudharmottara Purana.

    d) It is associated with the Pashupata sect.



    Q.47) Which of the following statements about Sir Syed Ahmed Khan is/are correct ?

    1. He argued that India was a federation of ethnic communities based on common descent.

    2. His philosophy was very similar to that of the Indian National Congress.

    3. He imagined India as a Nation State based on individual citizen’s rights.

    4. The curriculum at the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College blended Muslim theology and European empiricism.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a) 1 only

    b) 2 and 3

    c) 3 only

    d) 1 and 4


    Q.48) Consider the following statements about impact of tax :

    1. A tax is shifted forward to consumers if the demand is inelastic relative to supply.

    2. A tax is shifted backward to producers if the supply is relatively more inelastic than demand.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

    a) 1 only

    b) 2 only

    c) both 1 and 2

    d) Neither 1 nor 2



    Q.49) According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, as the amount of a good consumed increases, the marginal utility of that good rends to

    a) Improve

    b) diminish

    c) remain constant

    d) first diminish and then improve



    Q.50) eBiz is one of the integrated services projects and part of the 31 Mission Mode Projects [MMPs] under the National e-Governance Plan of the Government of India. eBIz is being implemented under the guidance and aegis of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry by

    a) Tata Consultancy Services

    b) Infosys Technologies Limited

    c) Wipro

    d) HCL Technologies



    Q.51) Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/are correct ?

    1. They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.

    2. They live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans.

    3. The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a) 1,2 and 3

    b) 1 and 2 only

    c) 2 and 3 only

    d) 1 only



    Q.52) Consider the following statement :

    “A sound body means one which bends itself to the spirit and is always a ready instrument at its service.”

    The above statement is attributed to

    a) Sardar Patel

    b) Winston Churchill

    c) Mahatma Gandhi

    d) Baden Powell



    Q.53) Who among the following was the founder of Phoenix Settlement?

    a) Mahatma Gandhi

    b) B.R.Ambedkar

    c) Rabindranath Tagore

    d) Swami Vivekananda



    Q.54) Name the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayanagara Empire

    a) Mahanavami Dibba

    b) Lotus Mahal

    c) Hazara Rama

    d) Virupaksha



    Q.55) The idea of ‘Farr-I Izadi’, on which the Mughal kingship was based, was first developed by which one of the following Sufi saints?

    a) Shihabuddin Suhrawardi

    b) Nizamuddin Auliya

    c) Ibn al-Arabi

    d) Bayazid Bistami



    Q.56) Which Buddhist text contains an account of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka?

    a) Vinaya Pitaka

    b) Sutta Pitaka

    c) Abhidhamma Pitaka

    d) Mahavamsa



    Q.57) Which one of the following statements about Buddhist Stupas in India is not correct?

    a) Ashoka played an important role in popularizing the Stupa cult

    b) They were repositories of relics of Buddha and other monks

    c) They were located in rural areas

    d) They were located close to trade routes



    Q.58) Which one among the following States of India has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly?

    a) West Bengal

    b) Bihar

    c) Madhya Pradesh

    d) Tamil Nadu



    Q.59) Which of the following statements about the Ordinance – making power of the Governor is/are correct?

    1. It is discretionary power

    2. The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    a) 1 only

    b) 2 only

    c) Both 1 and 2

    d) Neither 1 nor 2



    Q.60) Which one of the following events is not correctly matched with the year in which it happened?

    a) Inauguration of the SWIFT system of electronic interbank fund transfers world wide – 1985

    b) Conclusion of the Uruguay Round of GATT – 1994

    c) Inauguration of the World Trade Organization – 1995

    d) Establishment of the first wholly electronic stock exchange [Nasdaq] – 1971


    Q.61) Consider the following statements about Indo-Tibetan Border [ITBP] :

    1. ITBP was raised in 1962
    2. ITBP is basically a mountain trained force
    3. ITBP replaced Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in 2004-2005 for border guarding duty
    4. ITBP presently has 52 service battalions

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    a) 1 , 2 and 4 only
    b) 3 and 4 only
    c) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
    d) 1,2 and 3 only


    Q.62) Which one of the following is not an International Human Rights Treaty?

    a) International Convenant on Civil and Political Rights
    b) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women
    c) Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
    d) Declaration on the Right to Development


    Q.63) In the context of electrons in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT?

    a) Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail
    b) Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail
    c) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
    d) Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail


    Q.64) Which one of the following is not an objective of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana [PMKSY]?

    a) To achieve convergence of investment in irrigation at the field level
    b) To expand cultivable area under irrigation
    c) To improve on farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage of water
    d) To protect farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities


    Q.65) Which of the following National Parks of India are declared as World Heritage by UNESCO?

    1. Keoladeo National Park
    2. Sundarbans National Park
    3. Kaziranga National Park
    4. Ranthambore National Park

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    a) 1 and 2 only
    b) 1, 2 and 3 only
    c) 3 and 4 only
    d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4


    Q.66) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List – I
    [Railway Zone]
    A. North Central
    B. North Eastern
    C. West Central
    D. South Central

    List – II
    1. Secunderabad
    2. Jabalpur
    3. Gorakhpur
    4. Allahabad

    Code :
    A B C D
    a) 4 3 2 1
    b) 4 2 3 1
    c) 1 2 3 4
    d) 1 3 2 4


    Q.67) Which one of the following statements about lymph is correct?

    a) Lymph is formed due to leakage of blood through capillaries
    b) Lymph contains blood cells such as RBC
    c) Lymph is also circulated by the blood circulating heart
    d) Lymph only transports hormones

    Q.68) Which of the following classes of animals has / have three chambered heart?

    a) Pisces and Amphibia
    b) Amphibia and Reptilia
    c) Reptilia only
    d) Amphibia only


    Q.69) Accumulation of which one of the following in the muscles of sprinters leads to cramp?

    a) Lactic acid
    b) Ethanol
    c) Pyruvic acid
    d) Glucose


    Q.70) Which one of the following statements about Exchange – Traded Fund [ETF] is not correct?

    a) It is marketable security
    b) It experiences price changes throughout the day
    c) It typically has lower daily liquidity and higher fees than mutual fund shares
    d) An ETF does not have its net asset value calculated once at the end of everyday


    Q.71) Which one of the following is the maximum age of joining National Pension System [NPS] under the NPS Private Sector?

    a) 55 years
    b) 60 years
    c) 65 years
    d) 70 years


    Q.72) The Reserve Bank of India has recently constituted a high level task force on Public Credit Registry [PCR] to suggest a road map for developing a transparent, comprehensive and near real time PCR for India. The task force is headed by

    a) Sekar Karnam
    b) Vishakha Mulye
    c) Sriram Kalyanaraman
    d) Y.M.Deosthalee


    Q.73) In October 2017, India sent its first shipment of wheat to Afghanistan as the Government of India to supply 1 – 1 million tones of wheat to that country on grant basis. The shipment was sent through

    a) Iran
    b) Pakistan
    c) Tajikistan
    d) China


    Q.74) Which of the following statements about the India Post Payments Bank [IPPB] is/are correct?

    1. It has been incorporated as a Public Limited Company.
    2. It started its operation by establishing two pilot branches at Hyderabad and Varanasi

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2


    Q.75) Which of the following are the functions of the National Human Rights Commission [NHRC]?

    1. Inquiry at its own initiative on the violation of human rights
    2. Inquiry on a petition presented to it by a victim
    3. Visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates
    4. Undertaking and promoting research in the field of human rights

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    a) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    c) 1, 3 and 4 only
    d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4


    Q.76) A person is disqualified for being chosen as , and for being, a Member of either House of the Parliament if the person

    1. Holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State other than an office declared by the Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder.
    2. Is an undischarged insolvent
    3. Is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India
    4. Is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent Court

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a) 1, 2 and 4 only
    b) 1,2 ,3 and 4
    c) 3 and 4 only
    d) 1,2 and 3 only


    Q77) According to the Election Commission of India, In order to be recognized as a ‘National Party’ , a political party must be treated as a recognized political party in how many States?

    a) At least two States
    b) At least three States
    c) At least four States
    d) At least five States


    Q.78) Which one of the following statements with regard to Antrix Corporation Limited is correct?

    a) It is commercial arm of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
    b) It is under the administrative control of the Department of Space
    c) It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
    d) It is a commercial arm of the Department of Science and Technology


    Q.79) Verses ascribed to poet – saint Kabir have been compiled in which of the following traditions?

    1. Bijak in Varanasi
    2. Kabir Granthavali in Rajasthan
    3. Adi Granth Sahib

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a) 1 and 2 only
    b) 1, 2 and 3
    c) 2 and 3 only
    d) 3 only


    Q.80) Which one of the following elements is used as a timekeeper in atomic clocks?

    a) Potassium
    b) Caesium
    c) Calcium
    d) Magnesium


    Q.81) Which one of the following elements is involved in the control of water content of the blood?

    a) Potassium
    b) Lithium
    c) Rubidium
    d) Caesium


    Q.82) Which one of the following gases dissolves in water to give acidic solution?

    a) Carbon dioxide
    b) Oxygen
    c) Nitrogen
    d) Hydrogen


    Q.83) Which one of the following elements is essential for the formation of chlorophyll in green plants?

    a) Calcium
    b) Iron
    c) Magnesium
    d) Potassium


    Q.84) Consider the following chemical reaction :

    a Fe2O3 [s] + bCO[g]  cFe[s] + dCO2

    In the balanced chemical equation of the above , which of the following will be the values of the coefficients a, b, c and d respectively?

    a) 3, 2, 3,1
    b) 1, 3, 2, 3
    c) 2, 3, 3, 1
    d) 3, 3, 2, 1


    Q.85) Why is argon gas used along with tungsten wire in an electric bulb?

    a) To increase the life of the bulb
    b) To reduce the consumption of electricity
    c) To make the emitted light colored
    d) To reduce the cost of the bulb


    Q.86) Which one of the following is the correct relation between the Kelvin temperature [T] and the Celsius temperature [tc] ?

    a) These are two independent temperature scales
    b) T = tc
    c) T = tc – 273.15
    d) T = tc + 273.15


    Q.87) Sound waves cannot travel through a

    a) copper wire placed in air
    b) silver slab placed in air
    c) glass prism placed in water
    d) wooden hollow pipe placed in vacuum


    Q.88) Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer?

    a) 10-7 cm
    b) 10-6 cm
    c) 10-4 cm
    d) 10-3 cm


    Q.89) Consider the following statements :

    1. There is no net moment on a body which is in equilibrium
    2. The momentum of a body is always conserved
    3. The kinetic energy of an object is always conserved

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    a) 1, 2 and 3
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 1 and 2 only
    d) 1 only


    Q.90) Working of safety fuses depends upon

    1. magnetic effect of the current
    2. chemical effect of the current
    3. magnitude of the current
    4. heating effect of the current

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    a) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
    b) 1, 2 and 3 only
    c) 3 and 4 only
    d) 4 only


    Q.91) In November 2017, India’s MC Mary Kom won the gold medal at the Asian Boxing Championship, 2017 held at Ho Chi Minh City in Vietnam. In which one of the following categories was she declared winner?

    a) 48 kg
    b) 51 kg
    c) 54 kg
    d) 57 kg


    Q.92) Which one of the following is the theme of the World Soil Day, 2017?

    a) Soils and pulses , a symbol for life
    b) Caring for the Planet starts from the Ground
    c) Soils , a solid ground for life
    d) Soils, foundation for family farming


    Q.93) Who among the following is the winner of the National Badminton Championship [Men], 2017?

    a) Kidambi Srikanth
    b) H.S.Prannoy
    c) Ajay Jayaram
    d) Sai Praneeth


    Q.94) Which of the following statements about the usage of the term ‘barbarian’ is/are correct?

    1. It is derived from the Greek word ‘barbaros’ which means a non-Greek
    2. Romans used the term for the Germanic tribes, the Gauls and the Huns.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2


    Q.95) Which one of the following statements is not correct?

    a) Al-Biruni identifies the Sufi doctrine of divine love as self annihilation with parallel passages from Bhagavad Gita
    b) According to Al-Biruni, Sufi theories of Soul were similar to those in Patanjali’s Yoga Sutra
    c) The Hatha Yogic treatise Amrita Kunda had lasting impact on Sufism
    d) Hujwiri’s conversation with the Yogis shows that he was impressed with their theory of the division of the human body

    Q.96) Consider the following statement :

    “So much is wrong from the peasants, that even dry bread is scarcely left to fill their stomachs.”
    Who among the following European travelers had made the above statement about the condition of peasantry in the Mughal Empire?

    a) Francisco Pelsaert
    b) Francois Bernier
    c) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
    d) Niccolao Manucci


    Q.97) What is the name of the literary genre developed by the Khojas who are a branch of the Ismaili sect?

    a) Ginan
    b) Ziyarat
    c) Raag
    d) Shahada

    Q.98) Who was/were the 10th century composer[s] of the Nalayira Divya Prabandham?

    a) Alvars
    b) Nayanars
    c) Appar
    d) Sambandar


    Q.99) Which one of the following is not a correct ascending order of commissioned ranks in the defence forces of India?

    a) Lieutenant, Captain, Major, Lieutenant Colonel, Colonel, Brigadier, Major General, Leiutenant General , General
    b) Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing Commander, Group Captain, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal
    c) Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal
    d) Sub Lieutenant, Lieutenant , Lieutenant Commander, Commander, Captain Commodore, Rear Admiral , Vice Admiral, Admiral


    Q.100) Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is/are not correct?

    1. He is the first law Officer of the Government of India.
    2. He is entitled to the privileges of a Member of the Parliament
    3. He is a whole time counsel for the Government.
    4. He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a) 1, 2 and 3
    b) 2 and 4
    c) 3 only
    d) 1 only


    Q.101) Under which one of the following Amendment Acts was Sikkim admitted into the Union of India?

    a) 35th
    b) 36th
    c) 37th
    d) 38th


    Q.102) Which one of the following became a part of China in 1997 following the principle of ‘one country, two systems’?

    a) Tibet
    b) Hong Kong
    c) Xinjiang
    d) Inner Mongolia


    Q.103) Which one of the following statements in respect of the States of India is not correct?

    a) States in India cannot have their own Constitutions
    b) The State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution
    c) States in India do not have the right to secede from the Union of India
    d) The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 15 percent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly


    Q.104) Consider the following statements about National Wildlife Action Plan [NWAP] of India for 2017 – 2031 :

    1. This is the Third National Wildlife Action Plan
    2. The NWAP is unique as this is the first time India has recognized the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife.
    3. The NWAP has ten components

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    a) 1 only
    b) 1 and 2 only
    c) 2 and 3 only
    d) 1, 2 and 3


    Q.105) Growth in production [in percent] of which one of the following core industries in India during the period 2015 – 2016 was negative?

    a) Natural gas
    b) Refinery products
    c) Fertilizer
    d) Coal


    Q.106) Around twelfth century, Sufi Silsilas began to crystallize in different parts of the Islamic world to signify

    1. continuous link between the master and disciple
    2. unbroken spiritual genealogy to the Prophet Muhammad
    3. the transmission of spiritual power and blessings to devotees

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    a) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2 only
    c) 1 and 3 only
    d) 1, 2 and 3


    Q.107) In the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda, which one of the following hymns reflects upon the marriage ceremonies?

    a) Surya Sukta
    b) Purusha Sukta
    c) Dana Stutis
    d) Urna Sutra

    Q.108) Which of the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement is/are correct?

    1. It was marked by significant participation of peasants from Karnataka
    2. It was marked by non-Brahmin lower caste participation in Madras and Maharashtra
    3. It was marked by the lack of labour unrest in places like Assam, Bengal and Madras
    4. It was badly shaken by the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 after which Gandhiji decided to continue with the movement on a much smaller scale.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    a) 1 only
    b) 1, 2 and 4
    c) 2 and 3
    d) 2 only

    Q.109) Which one of the following was a focus country of the ‘World Food India’, a mega food event held in November 2017 in New Delhi?

    a) Germany
    b) Japan
    c) Denmark
    d) Italy


    Q.110) Which one of the following States will host the Nobel Prize Series – India 2018 [Science Impacts Life] Exhibition?

    a) Gujarat
    b) Rajasthan
    c) Goa
    d) Madhya Pradesh


    Q.111) The Ministry of Communication has recently launched a Pan India scholarship programme for school children called ‘Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana’. The objective of the scheme is to increase the reach of

    a) sports
    b) philately
    c) music
    d) web designing


    Q.112) Which one of the following temples of India has won the ‘UNESCO Asia Pacific Award of Merit , 2017’ for cultural heritage conservation?

    a) Kamakhya Temple , Guwahati
    b) Sri Ranganathaswami Temple, Srirangam
    c) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai
    d) Kedarnath Temple Kedarnath


    Q.113) Which one of the following teams was defeated by India to win the Women’s Hockey Asia Cup title, 2017?

    a) Japan
    b) China
    c) South Korea
    d) Pakistan


    Q.114) Which of the following statements about India is not correct?

    a) India has 12 major ports and about 200 non-major ports
    b) 95 percent of India’s trade by volume and 68 percent by value are moved through maritime transport
    c) India has a coastline of about 7500 km
    d) In the Maritime Agenda, 2010-2020, a target of 300 MT port capacity has been set for the year 2020.


    Q.115) Which one of the following statements is not correct?

    a) India joined MTCR in 2016
    b) India submitted a formal application for membership of the NSG in 2016
    c) India proposed the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism in 1996
    d) The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting [CHOGM] was held in 2016 at Malta

    Q.116) Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States?

    a) 91st Amendment
    b) 87th Amendment
    c) 97th Amendment
    d) 90th Amendment


    Q.117) Which of the following about the role of Indian Coast Guard is/are correct?

    1. Indian Coast Guard has been entrusted with the offshore security coordination authority
    2. Lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea border
    3. Coastal security in territorial waters

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    a) 1 and 3 only
    b) 1, 2 and 3
    c) 1 and 2 only
    d) 3 only


    Q.118) Which one of the following is India’s first indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile which can be deployed from multiple platforms?

    a) Astra
    b) Akash
    c) Nirbhay
    d) Shankhnaad


    Q.119) The Ministry of Power, Government of India has recently constituted a Committed to investigate the cause of the accident that occurred on 1st November, 2017 at Feroze Gandhi Thermal Power Plant Ltd., Unchahar, in Uttar Pradesh. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee?

    a) Dr. L.D. Papney
    b) Shri Dhawal Prakash Antapurkar
    c) Shri Subir Chakraborty
    d) Shri P.D. Siwal


    Q.120) In November 2017, an Indian short film, The School Bag won the Best Short Film Award at the South Asian Film Festival held at Montreal. Who among the following is the Director of the film?

    a) Anurag Kashyap
    b) Dheeraj Jindal
    c) Sujoy Ghosh
    d) Samvida Nanda


    CDS 1 Answer Key with Questions for Paper 3 (Elementary Mathematics)

    Question NoSet ASet BSet CSet D


    Ans: A

    Ans: C




    Ans: A 


    Ans: D





    Ans: C



    Ans: D

    Ans: C

    Ans: B

    Ans: C

    Ans: D

    Expected CDS Cut Off 

    The CDS Exam was held on Feb 04, 2018 and CDS aspirants appeared for various posts under CDS Exam such as IMA (100 vacancies), INA (45 vacancies), AFA (32 vacancies) and OTA (225 vacancies).

    Cut-off will be updated soon.

    Expected Cut Off105 + / - 395 + / - 3118 + / 390 + / - 3

    CDS 1 Answer Key | CDS 1 Answer Key | CDS Answer Key | CDS Cut Off | CDS Answer Key | CDS 1 Answer Key

    NeoStencil in collaboration with its top partnered IAS coaching institutes in Delhi will prepare CDS 1 Answer Key and CDS cut off. The Union Public Service Commission will be conducting CDS (Combined Defence Service) examination for recruitment into Defence Institutions on February 04. As always NeoStencil will be the first to announce the CDS Answer Key with explanations and sources as soon as the exam ceases, for the benefit of the candidates who would like to get a fair idea of how they performed and check their answers. CDS Answer Key will be helpful to assess your exam performance and check your eligibility for next level.

    CDS 1 Answer Key includes answers to Question Papers but also the complete question paper for candidates along with detailed explanations and their sources. CDS 1 Answer Key helps to determine CDS cut off based on a large number of students and experienced teachers from Delhi’s top IAS coaching institutes. Register now on NeoStencil and download the CDS 1 Answer Key with detailed explanations and their sources.

    The exam is being held to recruit for prestigious Defence Institutions namely, Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers Training Academy. The cut off will be decided by merit, based on GS, English and Mathematics (IMA, INA and AFA), and GK and English for OTA of CDS Exam. Candidates who have appeared for CDS Exam can check the CDS 2017 Answer Key on NeoStencil. 

    Prepared by Top IAS Coachings in Delhi

    NeoStencil offers Online IAS Classes through its unique LIVE Online platform for IAS/UPSC test preparation where you can access classrooms and test series program of the best teachers of India, from the comfort of your home. Students preparing for various Civil Services exam through NeoStencil and its associated institutes have secured 43 out of top 100 ranks and more than 500 total selections in the IAS Results in 2017. If you are interested in UPSC Online preparation from Top Institutes of IAS Coaching in Delhi, please feel free to check the multitude of courses we have for Live Online Classes for IAS and other state services. To read student testimonials, click here .

    CDS Syllabus, Exam Pattern & Notification 



    UPSC CDS 1 2018 Notification Released

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    Leave your comments below:

    Article last updated on

    24 responses on "CDS 1 Answer Key | Question Paper, Answers & Cut Off"

    1. Question no 45 .
      Answer should be marked as Sathanar instead of Kovalan . The reference given is correct . But marking is wrong .

    2. NeoStencil could you plzz….through d keY…. for CDS 2 paper 3 set A

    3. It is biome or ecosystem as in your link biome is given.

    4. Thanks for bringing to our notice.

      Pls share the question details so that we can update.

    5. question no. 75
      correct anwer is Rs. 800.(not Rs. 400)

    6. please throw some light on cutoff?

    7. Can anybody help me out with finding the answer key for the GK paper, SET B??

    8. 119 english (Our Doctors) ans C
      103 english (Aren’t you ?) and C

    9. what could be the cutoff as general knowledge was quite tricky

    10. Thank you NeoStencil.
      Just the cloze comprehension is missing, rest all answers have been made available.
      Please add this part as well, will be of great help.
      Thanks in advance,

    11. answer to q 64 is despite and not by

    12. please upload question paper of gs

    13. Thanks neostencil for your initiative.

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