CDS 1 Answer Key 2019 | Question Paper, Answers and Cut Off


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CDS 1 2019 Answer Key with Questions for Paper 1 (English)

1 A C A C
2 A A B D
3 B D D D
4 B C A D
5 D B C D
6 B B C C
7 B A A C
8 A B C A
9 D D A B
10 A C D B
11 B B A A
12 C A D C
13 A C B B
14 C D C C
15 A A A D
16 C A C A
17 B B C B
18 A D D C
19 C A A A
20 B C C B
21 C C A C
22 D A D A
23 D C A D
24 D A D C
25 D D B B
26 C A C B
27 C D B A
28 A B B B
29 B C B D
30 B A C C
31 A A C B
32 C C A A
33 B C D C
34 C B D D
35 D C C A
36 A A B A
37 B B A B
38 C D A D
39 A A B A
40 B C D C
41 C A A C
42 C A C A
43 D D D C
44 A B C A
45 C C A D
46 A C A A
47 D A A D
48 A B B B
49 D D B C
50 B C D A
51 C C B A
52 B C B A
53 B D A B
54 B A D B
55 C C A D
56 C A B B
57 A D C B
58 D A A A
59 D D C D
60 C B A A
61 B C C B
62 A B B C
63 A B A A
64 B B C C
65 D C B A
66 A C C C
67 C A D B
68 D D D A
69 C D D C
70 A C D B
71 A B C A
72 C A C C
73 C A A C
74 B B B B
75 C D B C
76 A A A A
77 B C C B
78 D D B D
79 A C C A
80 C A D C
81 A C A A
82 A D B A
83 D D C D
84 B D A B
85 C D B C
86 C C C C
87 A C A A
88 B A D B
89 D B C D
90 C B B C
91 A A B C
92 B C A C
93 D B B D
94 A C D A
95 C D C C
96 C A B A
97 A B A D
98 C C C A
99 A A D D
100 D B A B
101 A A A C
102 D A C B
103 B B C B
104 C B B B
105 A D C C
106 C B A C
107 A B B A
108 D A D D
109 C D A D
110 B A C C
111 B B A B
112 A C A A
113 B A D A
114 D C B B
115 C A C D
116 B C C A
117 A B A C
118 C A B D
119 D C D C
120 A B C A

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The questions are in order as in Set (A) 

  1. Directions : Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words are given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    How we _____ to ageing is a choice we must make wisely.
    1. a) respond
    2. b) absolve
    3. c) discharge
    4. d) overloodk
  2. Complementary medicine _______ fewer risks , since it is used along with standard remedies, often to lessen side-effects and enhance feelings of well-being
    1. a) reacts
    2. b) releases
    3. c) ejects
    4. d) carries
  3. Stress may ______ fertility in men and women
    1. a) engage
    2. b) reduce
    3. c) inject
    4. d) deduce
  4. The football match had to be _______ because of the weather
    1. a) called on
    2. b) called off
    3. c) called out
    4. d) called over
  5. Nobody believed Ram at first but he ______ to be right
    1. a) came out
    2. b) carried out
    3. c) worked out
    4. d) turned out
  6. How are you ______ in your new job ? Are you enjoying it ?
    1. a) keeping on
    2. b) going on
    3. c) getting on
    4. d) carrying on
  7. We live ______ a tower block . Our apartment is on the fifteenth florr.
    1. a) at
    2. b) International Court of Justice
    3. c) over
    4. d) above
  8. You were going to apply for the job, and then you decided not to. So what _____?
    1. a) put you off
    2. b) put you out
    3. c) turned you off
    4. d) turned you away
  9. _______ it was raining, he went out without a raincoat.
    1. a) Even
    2. b) Since
    3. c) Unless
    4. d) Although
  10. I parked my car in a no-parking zone, but. I _____ it.
    1. a) came up with
    2. b) got away with
    3. c) made off with
    4. d) got on with
  11. Synonyms
    Directions :
    Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed four words/group of words. Select the option that is the nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.
    A provocative message had been doing rounds on social media to instigate the mob against migrants.
    1. a) dexterous
    2. b) inflammatory
    3. c) valiant
    4. d) prudent
  12. The differences include increase in mean temperature and heavy precipitation in several regions.
    1. a) drought
    2. b) oasis
    3. c) rainfall
    4. d) snowing
  13. The portal will help victims and complainants to anonymously report cyber crime.
    1. a) incognito
    2. b) directly
    3. c) unfailingly
    4. d) in situ
  14. He is suffering from a terminal disease.
    1. a) sublunary
    2. b) terrific
    3. c) chronic
    4. d) incurable
  15. Doctors are reluctant to take rural postings despite big salary offers.
    1. a) disinclined
    2. b) eager
    3. c) frevent
    4. d) unrepentant
  16. The authorities have reprimanded the subordinate officer for violating the protocol
    1. a) extolled
    2. b) purported
    3. c) admonished
    4. d) required an apology
  17. For Gandhiji , India's religious and linguistic diversity was an asset, not a liability.
    1. a) obligaiton
    2. b) advantage
    3. c) attribute
    4. d) reinforcement
  18. How hysterical he is !
    1. a) berserk
    2. b) inconsistent
    3. c) duplicitous
    4. d) insincere
  19. Mahesh is mostly predudiced in his political opinion
    1. a) objectionable
    2. b) predatory
    3. c) jaundiced
    4. d) intimate
  20. Do not indulge in tautology
    1. a) truth telling
    2. b) prolixity
    3. c) foretelling
    4. d) telepathic conversation
    Each item in this section of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.
    His religious views are rather fanatical
    1. a) bigoted
    2. b) rabid
    3. c) moderate
    4. d) militant
  22. Religious fundamentalists often considre the followers of other religions to be heretics.
    1. a) dissenter
    2. b) believer
    3. c) renegade
    4. d) apostate
  23. According to G B Shaw, men have become inert. Therefore, life force has chosen women to perform its functions.
    1. a) lively
    2. b) quiescent
    3. c) dormant
    4. d) apathetic
  24. Some of the men are highly misanthropic.
    1. a) anti-social
    2. b) philosophic
    3. c) atrophic
    4. d) philantropic
  25. The teacher was a very profound man.
    1. a) sincere
    2. b) erudite
    3. c) scholarly
    4. d) superficial
  26. His hand-writing is readable.
    1. a) well-written
    2. b) decipherable
    3. c) illegible
    4. d) comprehensible
  27. Mohan is his steadfast friend.
    1. a) committed
    2. b) unwavering
    3. c) unfaltering
    4. d) unreliable
  28. Radha often goes tempestuous while debating
    1. a) calm
    2. b) violent
    3. c) fierce
    4. d) vehement
  29. The thief had very vital information to pass on to the police
    1. a) crucial
    2. b) inessential
    3. c) indispensable
    4. d) fundamental
  30. His lectures are often wordy and pointless
    1. a) diffuse
    2. b) concise
    3. c) garrulous
    4. d) voluble
    Directions :
    Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence , the part of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a); (b) ; (c) and (d) . You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
    the prize money for refusing her Pepsico was ordered to compensate the woman
    P Q R S
    1. a) RSQP
    2. b) SPQR
    3. c) RPSQ
    4. d) QRSP
  32. trade operating from a colony held a meeting demanding a probe into the illegal drug the residents of the city
    P Q R S
    1. a) QRSP
    2. b) SPQR
    3. c) SQRP
    4. d) RSQP
  33. the university authorities cancelled the ongong students union election and following students unrest on campus closed till further order decalred to institution
    P Q R S
    1. a) QRSP
    2. b) QPSR
    3. c) SQRP
    4. d) RSQP
  34. brushed past the latter's pet dog stabbed to death by man after his vehicle accidently a cargo van driver was allegedly
    P Q R S
    1. a) QRSP
    2. b) QPSR
    3. c) SQRP
    4. d) SQPR
  35. an erthquake and tsunami the disaster mitigation agency said that the death toll from in Indonesia has crossed 1500
    P Q R S
    1. a) PQSR
    2. b) RPSQ
    3. c) SQRP
    4. d) QRPS
  36. scientists say they have developed a new illnesses such as heart disease and cancer DNA tool that uses machine learning to accurately predict people's height and assess their risk for serious
    P Q R S
    1. a) PRSQ
    2. b) RPSQ
    3. c) PSRQ
    4. d) QRPS
  37. a rare evergreen tree in the Southern Western Ghats researchers have found that common white-footed ants are the best pollinators of bees might be the best known pollinators but
    P Q R S
    1. a) PRSQ
    2. b) SQRP
    3. c) QSRP
    4. d) PQRS
  38. say from their forties onwards it is this a good idea and continue to exercise early enough for senior citizens to start
    P Q R S
    1. a) PRSQ
    2. b) QRSP
    3. c) QSRP
    4. d) PQRS
  39. scientists have determined injury in animals and humans that is linked to the severity of spinal cord a gene signature
    P Q R S
    1. a) PSRQ
    2. b) QRPS
    3. c) QSPR
    4. d) PQRS
  40. like a muscle and repeating the process and stable reading circuit helps the child build a strong the brain works
    P Q R S
    1. a) QSRP
    2. b) SPRQ
    3. c) QSPR
    4. d) RQPS
    Directions :
    In this section each item of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R and S . You are required to find the proper sequence of the four senteces and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
    S1 : He no longer dreamed of storms, nor of women, nor of great occurences , nor of great fish, nor fights, nor contests of strength, nor of his wife.

    S6 : He urinated outside the shack and then went up the road to wake the boy.

    P : He never dreamed about the boy.

    Q : He only dreamed of places and of the lions on the beach now.

    R : He simply woke, looked out through the open door at the moon and unrolled his trousers and put them on.

    S : They played like young cats in the dusk and he loved them as he loved the boy.

    The correct sequence should be
    1. a) RQPS
    2. b) SRQP
    3. c) QSPR
    4. d) PRSQ
  42. S1 : We do not , after 60 years of education, how to protect ourselves against epidemics like cholera and plague.

    S6 : This is the disastrous result of the system under which we are educated.

    P : If our doctors could have started learning medicine at an earlier age, they would not make such a poor show as they do.

    Q : I have seen hundreds of homes. I cannot say that I have found any evidence in them of knowledge of hygiene.

    R : I consider it a very serious blot on the state of our education that our doctors have not found it possible to eradicate these diseases.

    S : I have the greatest doubt whether our graduates know what one should do in case is bittin by a snake.

    The correct sequence should be :
    1. a) RQSP
    2. b) PRQS
    3. c) QRPS
    4. d) PQSR
  43. S1 : The weak have no place here, in this life or in any other life. Weakness leads to slavery.

    S6 : This is the great fact : strength is life, weakness is death, Strength is felicity, life eternal, immortal; weakness is constant strain and misery : weakness is death.

    P : They dare not approach us, they have no power to get a hold on us, until the mind is weakened.

    Q : Weakness leads to all kinds of misery, physical and mental. Weakness is death.

    R : But they cannot harm us unless we become weak, until the body is ready and predisposed to receive them.

    S : There are hundreds of thousands of microbes surrounding us.

    The correct sequence should be
    1. a) PQRS
    2. b) PRQS
    3. c) QRSP
    4. d) QSRP
  44. S1 : The Nodel Prize for Economics in 2018 was awarded to Paul Romer and WilliamNordhaus for their work in two separate areas : economic growth and environmental economics respectively.

    S6 : Among recent winners of Nobel Prize in Economics , it's hard to think of one issue which is more topical and relevant to India.

    P : But there is a common thread in their work.

    Q : In economic jargon it's termed as externality
    R : Productive activity often has spillovers, meaning that it can impact an unrelated parrty.

    S : Romer and Nordhaus both studies the impact of externalities and came up with profound insights and economic models .

    The correct sequence should be
    1. a) PRQS
    2. b) PRQS
    3. c) QSPR
    4. d) QSRP
  45. S1 : India's museums tend to be dreary experiences.

    S6 : Because it's better to attract crowds than dust.

    P : Even the Louvere that attracted an ey-popping 8.1 million visitors last year compared to India's 10-18 million foreign tourists, has hooked up with Beyonce and Jay-Z for promotion, where they take a slefie with Mona Lisa

    Q : Our museums need to get cool too.

    R : A change of approach is clearly called for .

    S : Troops of restless school children are often the most frequenc visitors, endlessly being told to lower their voices and not touch the art.

    The correct sequence should be :
    1. a) PQRS
    2. b) PRSQ
    3. c) SRPQ
    4. d) QSRP
  46. S1 : A decade ago UN recognised that rape can constitute a war crime and a constittive act of genocide.

    S6 : The fact that these two peace laureates come from two different nations underlines that his problem has been widespread, from Rwanda to Myanmar.

    P : This year's Nobel peace prize has been awarded to two exceptional individuals for their fight to end the use of sexual violence as a weapon of war :

    Q : Denis Mukwege is a doctor who has spend decades treating rape survivors in the Democratic Republic of Congo, where a long civil war has repeatedly witnessed the horror of mass rapes.

    R : Nadia Murad is herself a survivor of sexual war crimes, perpetuated by IS against the Yazidis.

    S : Today she campaigns tirelessly to put those IS leaders in the dock in international courts.

    The correct sequence should be :
    1. a) PQRS
    2. b) PRQS
    3. c) SRQP
    4. d) QRSP
  47. S1 : Few scientists manage to break down the walls of the so-called ivory tower of academia and touch and inspire people who many not otherwise be interested in science.

    S6 : Not many would have survived this, let alone excelled in the manner he did.

    P : Stephen Hawking was one of these few.

    Q : Around this time he was diagnosed with Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis, an incurable motor neuron disease, and given two years to live.

    R : Judging by th odds he faced as a young graduate student of physics at Cambridge University, nothing could have been a more remote possibility.

    S : When he was about 20 years old, he got the shattering news that he could not work with the great Fred Hoyle for his PhD, as he had aspired to.
    The correct sequence should be
    1. a) PQSR
    2. b) PRQS
    3. c) SRPQ
    4. d) PRSQ
  48. S1 : The climate question presents a leapfrog ear for India's deevelopment paradigm.

    S6 : This presents a good template for India, building on its existing plans to introduce electric mobility through buses first, and cars by 2030.

    P : It is aimed at achieving a shift to sustainable fuels, getting cities to commit to eco-friendly mobility and deliveering more walkable communities , all of which will improve the quality of urban life.
    Q : At the Bonn conference, a new Transport Decarbonisation Alliance has been declared.

    R : This has to be resolutely pursued, breaking down the barriers to wider adoption of rooftop solar energy at every level and implementing net metering systems for all categories of consumers.

    S : Already the country has chalked out an ambitious policy on renewable energy, hoping to generate 175 gigawatts of power from green sources by 2022.

    The correct sequence should be
    1. a) SRQP
    2. b) SPRQ
    3. c) PRSQ
    4. d) QRSP
  49. S1 : The dawn of the information age opened up great opportunities for the beneficial use of ata.

    S6 : To some, in this era of Big Data analytics and automated, algorithmbaseed processing of zettabytes of information , the fear that their personal data may be unprotected may conjure up visions of a dystopian world in which individual liberties are compromised.

    P : But it is the conflict between the massive scope for progress provided by the digital era and the fear of loss of individual autonomy that is foregrounded in any debates about data protection laws.

    Q : It also enhanced the perlis of unregulated and arbitrary use of personal data.

    R : It is against this backdrop that the White Paper made public to elicit views from the public on the shape and substance of a comprehensive data protection law assume significance.

    S : Unauthorised leaks, hacking and other cyber crimes have rendered data bases vulnerable.

    The correct sequence should be
    1. a) SQRP
    2. b) QPRS
    3. c) SRPQ
    4. d) QSPR
  50. S1 : In a globalised world, no country can hope to impose tariffs without affecting its own economic interests.

    S6 : The ongoing trade war also threatens the rules based global trade order which has managed to amicably handle trade disputes between countreis for decades.

    P : So both the U.S and China, which have blamed each other for the ongoing trade war, are doing no good to their own economic fortunes by engaging in this tit-for tat tariff battle.

    Q : Apart from disadvantaging its consumers, who will have to pay higher prices for certain goods, tariffs will also disrupt the supply chain of producers who rely on foreign imports.

    R : China, which is fighting an economic slowdown, will be equally affected.

    S : The minutes of the U.S. Federal Reserve June policy meeting show that economic uncertainity due to the trade war is already affecting private investment in the U.S. , with many investors deciding to scale back or delay their investment plans.

    The correct sequence should be
    1. a) SQPR
    2. b) QPSR
    3. c) QRPS
    4. d) PSRQ
    Directions :
    In this section you have few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First , read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

    Passage - I
    From 1600 to 1757 the East India Company's role in India was that of a trading corporation which brought goods or precious metals into India and exchanged them for Indian goods like textiles and spices, which it sold abroad. Its profits came primarily from the sale of Indian goods abroad. Naturally, it tried constantly to open new markets for Indian goods in Britain and other countries. Thereby, it increased the export of Indian manufacturers, and thus encouraged their production. This is the reason why Indian rulers tolerated and even encouraged their production. This is the reason why Indian rulers tolerated and even encouraged the establishment of the Company's factories in India. But, from the very beginning, the British manufacturers were jealous of the popularity that India textiles enjoyed in Britain. All of a sudden, dress fashions changed and light cotton textiles began to replace the coarse woolens of the English. Before, the author of the famous novel, Robinson Crusoe, complained that Indian cloth had 'crept into our houses, our closets and bed chambers; curtains , cushions , chairs and at last beds themselves were nothing but calicos or India stuffs'. The British manufacturers put pressure on their government to restrict and prohibit the sale of Indian goods in England. By 1720 a lady had to pay a fine of 200 for possessing an imported handkerchief ! Moreover, heavy duties were imposed on the import of plain cloth. Other European countries, except Holland, also either prohibited the import of plain cloth. Other European countries , except Holland, also either prohibited the import of Indian cloth or imposed heavy import duties. In spite of these laws, however, Indian silk and cotton textiles stil held their own in foreign markets, until the middle of the eighteenth century when the English textile industry began to develop on the basis of new and advanced technology.

    The East India Company was encouraging the export of Indian manufacturers because
    1. a) it was a philanthropic trading corporation
    2. b) it wanted Indian manufacturers to prosper in trade and commerce
    3. c) it profited from the sale of Indian goods in foreign markets
    4. d) it feared Indian Kings who would not permit them trade in India.
  52. The people of England used Indian cloths because
    1. a) they loved foreign and imported clothes
    2. b) the Indian textile was light cotton
    3. c) the Indian cloths were cheaper
    4. d) the Indian cloths could be easily transported
  53. What did the British manufacturer do to compete with the indian manufactuerers?
    1. a) They pressurized the government to levy heavy duties on export of Indian clothes
    2. b) They pressurized the government to levy heavy duties on import of Indian clothes
    3. c) They requested people to change their fashion preferences
    4. d) They lowered the prices of the Britain made textile
  54. Which source is cited by the author to argue that Indian textile was in huge demand in 18th century England?
    1. a) The archival source
    2. b) The scientific source
    3. c) The journalistic source
    4. d) The literary source
  55. New and advanced technology in the paragraph refers to
    1. a) The French Revolution
    2. b) the Glorious Revolution of England
    3. c) the Indusrial Revolution
    4. d) the beginning of colonisalism
  56. Passage - II

    Zimbabwe's prolonged crisis reached the boiling point earlier this month when President Robert Mugabe dismissed the Vice Prisedent, Emmerson Mnangagwa. A battle to succeed the 93-year old liberation hero turned President had already been brewing within the ruling Zimbabwe African National Union-Patriotic Front (Zanu-PF), with the old guard backing Mr. Mnangagwa, himself a freedom fighter, and 'Generation 40' a grouping of younger leaders supporting Mr.Mugabe's 52-year old wife, Grace. Ms. Mnangagwa. But Mr. Mugabe, who has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence in 1980, erred on two counts : he underestimated the deep connections Mr.Mnangagwa has within the establishment and overestimated his own power in a system he has helped shape. In the good old days, Mr. Mugabe was able to rule with an iron grip. But those days are gon. Age and health problems have weakened his hold on power, while there is a groundswell of anger among the public over economic mismanagement. So when he turned against a man long seen by the establishment as his successor. Mr. Mugabe left little doubt that he was acting from a position of political weakness. This gave the security forces the confidence to turn against him and make it clear they didn't want a Mugabe dynasty. The military doesn't want to call its action a coup d'etat, for obvious reasons. A coup would attract international condemnation, even sanctions. But it is certain that the army chief, Gen. Constantino Chiwenga, is in charge. His plan, as it emerges, is to force Mr. Mugabe to resign and install a transitional government, perhaps under Mr. Mnangagwa, until elections are held.

    In the paragraph, who has been called liberation hero?
    1. a) Constantino Chiwenga
    2. b) Emmerson Mnangagwa
    3. c) Robert Mugabe
    4. d) Army Chief
  57. Mrs. Mugabe is supported by
    1. a) Mr. Mnangagwa
    2. b) Mr. Mugabe
    3. c) Generation 40
    4. d) Zanu-PF
  58. Mr. Mugabe's political weakness became apparent when
    1. a) he endorsed his wife
    2. b) he turned against the army
    3. c) he suffered from health issues
    4. d) he dismissed Mr. Mnangagwa
  59. The security forces of Zimbabwe staged a coup against the President because
    1. a) they wanted Mrs. Mugabe as the President
    2. b) they were aware of Mugabe's failing wealth
    3. c) they disliked Mugabe's extravagant lifestyle
    4. d) they did not want a Mugabe dynasty
  60. Why does the military not want to call it a coup d'etat?
    1. a) Because coup is immoral
    2. b) Because coup is illegal
    3. c) Because coup would lead to international censure and sanctions
    4. d) Because it would make the public revolt

    Over eating is one of the most wonderful practices among those who think that they can afford it. In fact, authorities say that nearly all who can get as much as they desire, over-eat to their disadvantage. This class of people could save a great more food than they can save by missing one meal per week and at the same time they could improve their health. A heavy meal at night, the so-called 'dinner', is the fashion with many and often is taken shortly before retiring. It is unnecessary and could be forgone, not only once a week but daily without loss of strength. From three to five hours are needed to digest food. While sleeping, this food not being required to give energy for work, is in many cases converted into excess fat, giving rise to over weight. The evening meal should be light , taken three or four hours before retiring. This prevents over eating , conserves energy and reduces the cost of food.

    Why should those who over eat refrain from doign so?

    1. a) Because over eating leads to loss wealth
    2. b) Because overeating is bad for health
    3. c) Because over eating conserves food
    4. d) because over eating is immoral and unhealthy
  62. Over eating is more prevalent among
    1. a) the rich
    2. b) the poor
    3. c) everybody
    4. d) the bourgeoisie
  63. The writer is asking the readers
    1. a) to skip the heavy dinner and take light evening meal instead
    2. b) to stop eating anything at night
    3. c) to take food only during the day
    4. d) to eat food before the sunset
  64. What is the most appropriate time for having evening meal?
    1. a) an hour after the sunset
    2. b) three or four hours before sleeping
    3. c) Before the sunset
    4. d) Just before sleeeping
  65. According to the passage , how many times a day should we have food?
    1. a) Three times
    2. b) Two times
    3. c) Once
    4. d) Has not been specified
  66. According to the passage , people over eat
    1. a) because they can afford to
    2. b) because they are hungry
    3. c) because they have to work more
    4. d) because they have to conserve energy
  67. Passage - IV

    Much has been said of the common ground of religious unity. I am not going just now to venture my own theory. But if anyone here hopes that this unity will come by the triumph of any one of the religions and the destruction of the others, to him I say, "Brother , yours is an impossible hope," Do I wish that the Christian would become Hindu? God forbid. Do I wish that the Hindu or Buddhist would become Christian? Good forbid.

    The seed is put in the ground and earth and air and water are placed around it. Does the seed become the earth , or the air, or the water? No, it becomes a plant. It develops after the law of its own growth, assimilates the air, the earth, and the water, converts them into plant substance , and grows into a plant.

    Similar is the case with religion. The Christian is not to become a Hindu or a Buddhist , nor a Hindu or a Buddhist to become a Christian. But each must assimilate the spirit of the others and yet preserve his individuality and grow according to his own law of growth.

    If the Parliament of Religions has shown anything to the world, it is this : it has proved to the world, that holiness, purity and charity are not he exclusive possessions of any church in the world, and that every system has produced men and women of the most exalted character. In the face of this evidence, if anybody dreams of the exclusive survival of his own religion and the destruction of hte others, I pity him from the bottom of my heart , and point out to him that upon the banner of every religion will soon be written in spite of resistance : "Help and not fight," Assimilation and not Destruction," Harmony and Peace and not Dissension."

    According to the author of the passage, people should
    1. a) change their religions
    2. b) follow their religions and persuade others to follow it
    3. c) follow their own religions and respect other religions
    4. d) disrespect other religions
  68. The Parliament of Religions is
    1. a) a Christian organization
    2. b) a Buddhist organization
    3. c) a Hindu organization
    4. d) a platform for discussion about every religion of the world.
  69. What does the author think about those who dream about the exclusive survival of their own religions and the destruction of the others?
    1. a) He hates them
    2. b) He desirs to imprison them
    3. c) He pities them
    4. d) He praises them
  70. According to the passage, what is 'impossible hope'?
    1. a) One day, all the people of the world will follow only one religion
    2. b) One day , there will be no religion
    3. c) Purity and charity are the exclusive possesions
    4. d) Banner of every religion will soon be written.
    Directions :
    Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicated your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

    Except for few days in a year during the monsoon the river cannot flow on its own. No error.
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  72. Being apprised with our approach, the whole neighbourhood came out to meet the minister. No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  73. The celebrated grammarian Patanjali was a contemporary to Pushyamitra Sunga No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  74. His appeal for funds met a poor response No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  75. Buddhism teaches that freedom from desires will lead to escape suffering No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  76. This hardly won liberty was not to be lightly abandoned No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  77. My friend said he never remembered having read a more enjoyable book No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  78. With a population of over one billion, India is second most populous country in the world after China No error
    (a) (b)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  79. There are hundred of superstitions which survive in the various parts of the country No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  80. It is in the temperate countries of northern Europe that the beneficial effects of cold is most manifest No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  81. The effects of female employment on gender equality now appear to be trickling at the next generation No error
    (a) (b) © (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  82. Since the 15 minutes that she drives , she confesses that she feels like a woman with wings No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  83. India won by an innings and three runs No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  84. Each one of these chairs are broken No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  85. Few creature outwit the fox in Aesop's Fables No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  86. Anywhere in the world when there is conflict women and children suffer the most No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  87. The man is the foundation director of this company No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  88. Parents of LGBT community members are coming in with a little help from NGOs No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  89. To love one art form is great but to be able to appreciate another and find lateral connections are priceless No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  90. Female literacy rate has gone up by 11% in the past decade as opposed to a 3% increase in male literacy No error
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
    Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the answer sheet accordingly.

    The question whether war is ever justified , and if so under what circumstances, is one which has been forcing itself ________
    the attention of all thoughtful men
    1. a) upon
    2. b) One day , there will be no religion
    3. c) at
    4. d) over
  92. On this question I find myself in the some what ________ position of
    1. a) delightful
    2. b) painful
    3. c) pleasant
    4. d) lovely
  93. holding that no single one of the combatants is justified in the present war, while not taking the extreme Tolstoyan view that war is under all circumstances a _______
    1. a) duty
    2. b) obligation
    3. c) responsibility
    4. d) crime
  94. Opinions on such a subject as war are the outcome of ______
    1. a) feeling
    2. b) sentiment
    3. c) reason
    4. d) patriotism
  95. rathar than of thought : given a man's emotional temperament , his convictions, ______ on war in general , and on any particular war which
    1. a) however
    2. b) as well as
    3. c) both
    4. d) despite
  96. may occur during his lifetime , can be ________ with tolerable certainty
    1. a) thought
    2. b) intimated
    3. c) suggested
    4. d) held
  97. The arguments used will be mere reinforcements to convictions otherwise reached. The fundamental facts in this as in all ethical ________ are feelings , all that
    1. a) questions
    2. b) answers
    3. c) statements
    4. d) experiences
  98. thought can do is to clarify and systematize the expression of those feelings , and it is such clarifying and systematizing of my own feelings that I wish to ______
    1. a) engage
    2. b) praise
    3. c) attempt
    4. d) commend
  99. in the present article. In fact, the question of rights and wrongs of a particular war is generally ______ from a juridical or quasi juridical
    1. a) considered
    2. b) observed
    3. c) transferred
    4. d) opined
  100. ________
    1. a) possibility
    2. b) formula
    3. c) force
    4. d) standpoint
    The Nobel Prize for Chemistry this year is a tribute to the power of ______ The laureates harnessed evolution and used it in the _______
    1. a) evolution
    2. b) devolution
    3. c) revolution
    4. d) involution
  102. _______ with amazing results. Frances H . Arnold , an American who
    1. a) microscope
    2. b) field
    3. c) market
    4. d) laboratory
  103. was given one half of the prize , used 'directed evolution' to _______
    1. a) inhibit
    2. b) synthesize
    3. c) hamper
    4. d) hold back
  104. variants of naturally occuring enzymes that could be used to _______
    1. a) constitute
    2. b) sink
    3. c) manufacture
    4. d) resolve
  105. biofuels and pharmaceuticals. The other half went to George P.Smith, also of the U.S and Sir Gregory P. Winter, from the U.K, who evolved antibodies to _______ autoimmune diseases and even metastatic cancer through a process called phage display.
    1. a) combat
    2. b) support
    3. c) observe
    4. d) invite
    Directions :
    Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b) , (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

    A match made in heaven
    1. a) a marriage that is solemnized formally
    2. b) a marriage that is unsuccessful
    3. c) a marriage that is likely to be happy and successful
    4. d) a marriage of convenience
  107. A culture vulture
    1. a) someone who is very keen to experience art and literature
    2. b) someone who wants to defend someone who wants to defend ancient culture
    3. c) someone who is ashamed of one's own culture
    4. d) someone who looks at her/his culture critically
  108. A death blow
    1. a) to be nearly dead
    2. b) to be deeply afraid of death
    3. c) to beat someone to death
    4. d) an action or which causes something to end or fail
  109. The jewel I the crown
    1. a) someone who has many skills
    2. b) something that one wants
    3. c) the most valuable thing in a group of things
    4. the jewel in the crown of the king
  110. To live in a fool's paradise
    1. a) to live a life that is dishonest
    2. b) to be happy because you will not accept how bad a situation really is
    3. c) to beliee that things you want will happen
    4. d) to enjoy yourself by spending a lot of money
  111. A rotten apple
    1. a) to remove something which is rotten
    2. b) one bad person in a group of good people
    3. c) a loving and kind person
    4. d) a disorganized person with bad habits
  112. To vote with your feet
    1. a) to show that you do not support something
    2. b) to replace something important
    3. c) to change something you must do
    4. d) to express a particular opinion
  113. Verbal diarrhoea
    1. a) to be sick
    2. b) to talk too much
    3. c) to be in a difficult situation
    4. d) to be a good orator
  114. To sail close to the wind
    1. a) to pretend to be something that you are not
    2. b) to be in some unpleasant situaton
    3. c) to be destroyed by a belief
    4. d) to do something that is dangerous
  115. A double entendre
    1. a) to look at someone or something twice
    2. b) a situation in which you cannot succeed
    3. c) a word which has two meanings
    4. d) something that causes both advantages and problems
  116. To cut your own throat
    1. a) to stop doing something
    2. b) to do something because you are angry
    3. c) to behave in a relaxed manner
    4. d) to allow someone to do something
  117. Cook the books
    1. a) to record false information in the accounts of an organization
    2. b) to do something that spoils someone's plan
    3. c) to tell a false story
    4. d) to be very angry
  118. Change your tune
    1. a) to listen to good music
    2. b) to do things that you are not willing to
    3. c) to change your opinion completely because it will bring you an advantage
    4. d) to pretend to be very friendly
  119. Blue blood
    1. a) to swallow poison
    2. b) to be overly interested in someone
    3. c) to suddenly become jealous
    4. d) to belong to a family of the highest social class
  120. Cut the crap
    1. a) an impolite way of telling someone to stop saying things that are not true
    2. b) to stop needing someone else to look after you
    3. c) to talk about something important
    4. d) to upset someone by criticizing them

CDS Answer Key with Questions for Paper 1 (General Knowledge)

1 A   D A
2 A A C A
3 A D   B
4 B C B C
5 B D D C
6 C A C A
7 B   C C
8 B D B B
9 A D C B
10 C A D B
11 B C C D
12 C B A A
13 C A D A
14 D D C D
15 B D C  
16 A A A A
17 A A B A
18 D A D D
19 B B D B
20 B B B / C B
21 C C B C
22 D B A D
23 C B B C
24 D A B D
25 D C B D
26 A B C A
27 A C A A
28 B C C B
29 D D D D
30 D B   D
31 A A D D
32 A B C C
33 B D B  
34 C D B B
35 C B / C A D
36 A B   C
37 C A   C
38 B B A B
39 B B C C
40 B B   D
41 D C A C
42 A A D A
43 A C A D
44 D D   C
45     D C
46 D A   A
47 C A A B
48 B B D D
49 B C C D
50 A C D B / C
51   A A B
52   C   A
53 A B D B
54 C B D B
55   B A B
56 A D C C
57 D A B A
58 A A A C
59   D D D
60 D   D  
61   C A D
62 A B A C
63 D D B B
64 C A C B
65 D C C A
66 A D A  
67     C  
68 D C B A
69 D B B C
70 A A B  
71 C B D A
72 B B A D
73 A A A A
74 D A D  
75 D B   D
76 C D A A
77 B C A A
78 D   D A
79 A B B B
80 C D B B
81 D C C C
82   C D B
83 C B C B
84 B C D A
85 A D D C
86 B C A B
87 B A A C
88 A D B C
89 A C D D
90 B C D B
91 A D A C
92 B C A B
93 D B A D
94 D B B A
95 B / C A B C
96 B   C D
97 A   B  
98 B A B C
99 B C A B
100 B   C A
101 C A B B
102 A D C B
103 C A C A
104 D   D A
105   D B B
106 D A C  
107 C A B A
108   D D D
109 B B A C
110 D B C D
111 C C D A
112 C D    
113 B C C D
114 C D B D
115 D D A A
116 C A B C
117 A A B B
118 D B A A
119 C D A D
120 C D B D

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CDS 1 Answer Key 2019 Paper 2 (General Knowledge) - Score Calculator

The questions are in order as in Set (A)

  1. Henry T. Colebrooke was a Professor of Sanskrit in which one of the following institutions?
    1. a) Fort William College
    2. b) Serampore Mission
    3. c) Kashi Vidyapith
    4. d) Asiatic Society
  2. The Deccan Agriculturalists 'Relief Act of 1879 was enacted with which one of the following objectives?
    1. a) Restore lands to the dispossessed peasants
    2. b) Ensure financial assistance to peasants during social and religious occasions
    3. c) Restrict the sale of land for indebtedness to outsiders
    4. d) Give legal aid to insolvent peasants
  3. The Damin-i-Koh was created by the British Government to settle which one of the following communities?
    1. a) Santals
    2. b) Mundas
    3. c) Oraons
    4. d) Saoras
  4. The Limitation Law, which passed by the British in 1859, addressed which one of the following issues?
    1. a) Loan bonds would not have any legal validity
    2. b) Loan bonds signed between money lender and Ryots would have validity only for three years
    3. c) Loan bonds could not be executed by moneylenders
    4. d) Loan bonds would have validity for ten years
  5. Who among the following was known during the days of the Revolt of 1857 as 'Danka Shah'?
    1. a) Shah Mal
    2. b) Maulavi Ahmadullah Shah
    3. c) Nana Sahib
    4. d) Tantia Tope
  6. The Summary Settlement of 1856 was based on which one of the following assumptions?
    1. a) The Talukdars were the rightful owners of the land
    2. b) The Talukdars were interlopers with no permanent stakes in the land.
    3. c) The Talukdars could evict the peasants from the lands
    4. d) The Talukdars would take a portion of the revenuee which flowed to the State
  7. The Inter State Council was set up in 1990 on the recommendation of
    1. a) Punchhi Commission
    2. b) Sarkaria Commission
    3. c) Rajamannar Commission
    4. d) Mungerilal Commission
  8. Which among the following writs is issued to quash the order of a Court or Tribunal?
    1. a) Mandamus
    2. b) Prohibition
    3. c) Quo Warranto
    4. d) Certiorari
  9. Which among the following statements about the power to change the basic structure of the Constitution of India is/are correct?
    1. It falls outside the scope of the amending powers of the Parliament.
    2. It can be exercised by the people though representatives in a Constituent Assembly.
    3. It falls within the constituent powers of the Paliament.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    1. a) 1 and 3
    2. b) 1 and 2
    3. c) 1 only
    4. d) 2 and 3
  10. When a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation , the right to move a Court for the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights remains suspended, except
    1. a) Article 20 and Article 21
    2. b) Article 21 and Article 22
    3. c) Article 19 and Article 20
    4. d) Article 15 and Article 16
  11. Which one of the following Articles of the Constituent of India down that no citizen can be denied the use of wells, tanks and bathing Ghats maintained out of State funds?
    1. a) Article 14
    2. b) Article 15
    3. c) Article 16
    4. d) Article 17
  12. Who amongst the following organized the All India Scheduled Castes Federation?
    1. a) Jyotiba Phule
    2. b) Periyar
    3. c) B.R. Ambedkar
    4. d) M.K. Karunanidhi
  13. Paul Allen, who died in October 2018, was the co-founder of
    1. a) Oracle
    2. b) IBM
    3. c) Microsoft
    4. d) SAP
  14. The mobile app 'cVIGIL' is helpful in
    1. a) conducting free and fair e-tendering process in government offices
    2. b) fighting against corruption in public services
    3. c) removing garbage from the muncipal areas
    4. d) reporting violation of model code of conduct in election bound States
  15. Prahaar' is
    1. a) a battle tank
    2. b) a surface-to-surface missile
    3. c) an aircraft carrier
    4. d) a submarine
  16. Who among the following is/are the recipient/recipients of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2018?
    1. a) Virat Kohli
    2. b) S.Mirabai Chanu and Virat Kohli
    3. c) Neeraj Chopra
    4. d) Hima Das and Neeraj Chopra
  17. Pakyong Airport is located in
    1. a) Sikkim
    2. b) Jammu and Kashmir
    3. c) Arunachal Pradesh
    4. d) Mizoram
  18. The United Nations has been observing International Day of Rural Women on
    1. a) 15th July
    2. b) 15th August
    3. c) 15th September
    4. d) 15th October
  19. Who among the following is the first Indian to win Pulitzer Prize?
    1. a) Arundhati Roy
    2. b) Gobind Behari Lal
    3. c) Vijay Seshadri
    4. d) Jhumpa Lahiri
  20. Saurabh Chaudhary excels in which one of the following sports?
    1. a) Archery
    2. b) Shooting
    3. c) Boxing
    4. d) Judo
  21. Which one of the following is not an assumption in the law of demand?
    1. a) There are no changes in the taste and preferences of consumers
    2. b) Income of consumers remains constant
    3. c) Consumers are affected by demonstration effect
    4. d) There are no changes in the price of substitute goods.
  22. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
    1. a) When total utility is maximum, marginal utility is zero
    2. b) When total utility is decreasing, marginal utility is negative
    3. c) When total utility is increasing, marginal utility is positive
    4. d) When total utility is maximum , marginal and average utility are equal to each other.
  23. Consider the following statements about indifference curves :
    1. Indifference curves are convex to the origin.
    2. Higher indifference curve represents higher level of satisfaction.
    3. Two indifference curves cut each other.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. a) 1 only
    2. b) 1 and 2
    3. c) 2 and 3
    4. d) 3 only
  24. Consider the following statements about a joint-stock company :
    1. It has a legal existence.
    2. There is limited liability of share holders.
    3. It has a democratic management.
    4. It has a collective ownership.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    1. a) 1 and 2 only
    2. b) 1, 2 and 3 only
    3. c) 3 and 4 only
    4. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  25. When some goods or productive factors are completely fixed in amount, regardless of price, the supply curve is
    1. a) horizontal
    2. b) downward sloping to the right
    3. c) vertical
    4. d) upward sloping to the right
  26. Who designed the Bombay Secretariat in the 1870s?
    1. a) H.St. Clair Wilkins
    2. b) Sir Cowasjee Jehangir Readymoney
    3. c) Purushottamdas Thakurdas
    4. d) Nusserwanji Tata
  27. Who was the founder of Mahakali Pathshala in Calcutta?
    1. a) Her Holiness Mataji Maharani Tapaswini
    2. b) Sister Nivedita
    3. c) Madamee Blavatsky
    4. d) Sarojini Naidu
  28. Which Europeean ruler had observed 'Bear in mind that the commerce of India is the commerce of the world …. he who can exclusively command it is the dictator of Europe?
    1. a) Queen Victoria
    2. b) Peter the Great of Russia
    3. c) Napoleon Bonaparte
    4. d) Gustav II Adolf
  29. Which European traveller had observed , "A Hindu woman can go anywhere alone, even in the most crowded places, and she need never fear the impertinent looks and jokes of idle loungers"?
    1. a) Francois Bernier
    2. b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
    3. c) Thomas Roe
    4. d) Abbe J.A. Dubois
  30. Who was the author of the book, Plagues and and Peoples?
    1. a) W.L. Thomas
    2. b) Rachel Carson
    3. c) David Cannadine
    4. d) William H.McNeill
  31. Which Indian social theorist had argued that the idea of a homogenized the 'cultural arrogance of post-enlightenment Europe'?
    1. a) Ashis Nandy
    2. b) Partha Chatterjee
    3. c) T.K.Oommen
    4. d) Rajni Kothari
  32. Sub-prime crisis' is a term associated with which one of the following events ?
    1. a) Economic recession
    2. b) Political instability
    3. c) Structural adjustment programmes
    4. d) Growing social inequality
  33. Which one of the following is not a change brought about by the Indian Independence Act of 1947?
    1. a) The Government of India Act, 1935 was amended to provide an interim Constitution
    2. b) India ceased to be a dpendency
    3. c) The Crown was the source of authority till new Constitution was framed
    4. d) The Governor General was the constitutional head of Indian Dominion
  34. Which one of the following is not a correct statement regarding the provision of Legislative Council in the State Legislature?
    1. a) The States of Bihar and Telangana have Legislative Councils
    2. b) The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State shall not exceed one third of the total number of members in the Lesislative Assembly
    3. c) One twelfth of all members shall be elected by electorates consisting of local bodies and authorities
    4. d) one twelfth of all members shall be elected by graduates residing in the State
  35. Which one of the following is not correct about the Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of India?
    1. a) The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly by people in order to exercise the right to vote in the Panchayat meetings.
    2. b) The State Legislature has the right to decide whether or not offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats are reserved for SCs, Sts or women.
    3. c) Unless dissoved earlier, every Panchayat continues for a period of fiver years.
    4. d) The State Legislature may by law make provisions for audit of accounts of the Panchayats.
  36. Which one fo the following is not correct about Administrative Tribunals?
    1. a) The Parliament may by law constittue Administrative Tribunals both at the Union and State levels
    2. b) Tribunals may look into disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services.
    3. c) Tribunals established by a law of the Parliament can exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts to allow for special leave to appeal.
    4. d) The law establishing the Tribunals may provide for procedures including rules of evidence to be followed.
  37. A market situation when firms sell similar but not identical products is termed as
    1. a) perfect competition
    2. b) imperfect competition
    3. c) monopolistic competion
    4. d) oligopoly
  38. Consider the following statements :
    1. Inflation in India continued to be moderate during 2017-18
    2. There was significant reduction in food inflation, particularly pulses and vegetables during the peirod.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. a) 1 only
    2. b) 2 only
    3. c) Both 1 and 2
    4. d) Neither 1 nor 2
  39. Which one of the following hypotheses postulates that individual's consumption in any time period depends upon resources available to the individual, rate of return on his capital and age of the individual?
    1. a) Absolute Income Hypothesis
    2. b) Relative Income Hypothesis
    3. c) Life Cycle Hypothesis
    4. d) Permanent Income Hypothesis
  40. According to John Maynard Keynes, employment depends upon
    1. a) aggregate demand
    2. b) aggregate supply
    3. c) effective demand
    4. d) rate of interest
  41. Which one of the following canons of taxation was not advocated by Adam Smith?
    1. a) Canon of equality
    2. b) Canon of certainty
    3. c) Canon of convenience
    4. d) Canon of fiscal adequacy
  42. Which Arab scientist could be given the credit of christening the mathematical discipline of algotithm?
    1. a) Al-Khwarizmi
    2. b) Ibn al - Haytham
    3. c) Ibn Rushd
    4. d) Ibn Sina
  43. Which one of following developments took place because of the Kansas Nebraska Act of 1854?
    1. a) The Missouri Compromise was repealed and people of Kansas and determine whether they should own slaves or not.
    2. b) The Act did not permit the territories the right to voter over the question of slavery
    3. c) The voice of the majority in regard to the issue of slavery was muzzled.
    4. d) The Federal Government had the sole authority to decide on slavery
  44. Which one of the following issues was included in the Indo-US Nuclear Agreement of 2007?
    1. a) India has 'advance right to reprocess' US-origin safeguarded spent fuel.
    2. b) India did not have the right to build a strategic fuel reserve with the help of the other supplier countries
    3. c) India should not test a nuclear device
    4. d) The US will impede with the growth of India's nuclear weapons programme.
  45. Which of the following statements about Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, as a drafting member of the Constitution of India, are correct?
    1. He favoured the role of the Supreme Court in taking important decisions related to the interpretation of the Constitution of India.
    2. He felt that the Supreme Court had to draw the line between liberty and social control.
    3. He believed in the dominance of the executive over the judiciary.
    4. He favoured a dictatorial form of governance.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    1. a) 1 and 2 only
    2. b) 1, 2 and 3
    3. c) 3 and 4
    4. d) 1 , 2 and 4
  46. Which of the following are the core functions of the United Nations multidimensional peace keeping operations?
    1. Stabilizatoin
    2. Peace consolidation
    3. To extend support to a losing State in a war.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    1. a) 1 , 2 and 3
    2. b) 2 and 3 only
    3. c) 1 and 3 only
    4. d) 1 and 2 only
  47. The South China Sea Dispute involves which of the following countries?
    1. China
    2. Vietnam
    3. Malaysia
    4. Indonesia
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    1. a) 1 and 4
    2. b) 1 and 2 only
    3. c) 1, 2 and 3
    4. d) 2, 3 and 4
  48. The 'Kyoto Protocol' is an international treaty that commits State parties to reduction in
    1. a) poverty
    2. b) greenhouse gases emission
    3. c) nuclear armaments
    4. d) agricultural subsidy
  49. The 'Beijing Declaration' is concerned with which one of the following issues?
    1. a) Rights of children
    2. b) Rights of women
    3. c) Right to development
    4. d) Reduction of tariffs
  50. The 'Gujral Doctrine' relates to which one of the following issues?
    1. a) Build trust between India and its neighbours
    2. b) Initiate dialogue with all insurgent groups in India
    3. c) Undertake development activities in Naxal dominated areas
    4. d) Ensure food security
  51. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
    List - I List - II
    (Compound/Molecule) (Shape of Molecule)
    A. CH3F 1. Trigonal planar
    B. HCHO 2. Tetrahedral
    C. HCN 3. Trigonal pyramidal
    D. NH3 4. Linear

    Code :
    A B C D
    1. a) 2 4 1 3
    2. b) 2 1 4 3
    3. c) 3 4 1 2
    4. d) 3 1 4 2
  52. Very small insoluble particles in a liquid may be separated from it by using
    1. a) crystallization
    2. b) fractional distillation
    3. c) centrifugation
    4. d) decantation
  53. Which one of the following elements cannot be detected by "Lassaigne's test"?
    1. a) I
    2. b) Cl
    3. c) S
    4. d) F
  54. In which of the following , functional group isomerism is not possible?
    1. a) Alcohols
    2. b) Aldehydes
    3. c) Alkyl halides
    4. d) Cyanides
  55. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
    1. a) Fischer projection represents the molecule in an eclipsed conformation
    2. b) Newman projection can be represented in eclipsed, staggered and skey conformations
    3. c) Fischer projection of the molecule is its most stable conformation
    4. d) In Sawhorse projections, the lines are inclined at an angle of 120o to each other.
  56. The monomer/monomers used for the synthesis of Nylon 6 is /are
    1. a) hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid
    2. b) caprolactam
    3. c) urea and formaldehyde
    4. d) phenol and formaldehyde
  57. Which one among the following stars is nearest to the earth?
    1. a) Sirius
    2. b) Arcturus
    3. c) Spica
    4. d) Proxima Centauri
  58. Which of the following planets of our solar system has least mass?
    1. a) Neptune
    2. b) Jupiter
    3. c) Mars
    4. d) Mercury
  59. Two identical solid pieces, one of gold and other of silver, when immersed completely in water exhibit equal weights. When weighed in air (given that density of gold is greater than that of silver)
    1. a) the gold piece will weigh more
    2. b) the silver piece will weight more
    3. c) both silver and gold pieces weigh equal
    4. d) weighing will depend on their masses
  60. If the wavelengths corresponding to ultraviolet, visible and infrared radiations are given as lUV, lVIS and lIR respectively, then which of the following gives the correct relationship among theses wavelengths?
    1. a) lUV < lIR < lVIS
    2. b) lUV > lVIS > lIR
    3. c) lUV > lIR > lVIS
    4. d) lUV < lVIS < lIR
  61. An electron and a proton starting from rest get accelerated through potential difference of 100kV. The final speeds of the electron and the proton are Ve and Vp respectively. Which of the following relations is correct?
    1. a) Ve > Vp
    2. b) Ve < Vp
    3. c) Ve = Vp
    4. d) Cannot be determined
  62. If two vectors A and B are at an an angle q ≠ 0o then
    1. a) EQUATION
    2. b)
    3. c)
    4. d)
  63. Which one of the following functions is not carried out by smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
    1. a) Transport of materials
    2. b) Synthesis of lipid
    3. c) Synthesis of protein
    4. d) Synthesis of steroid hormone
  64. Which one of the following cell organelles mainly functions as storehouse of digestive enzymes?
    1. a) Desmosome
    2. b) Ribosome
    3. c) Lysosome
    4. d) Vacuoles
  65. Which one of the following tissues is responsible for increase of girth in the stem of a plant?
    1. a) Tracheid
    2. b) Pericycle
    3. c) Intercalary meristem
    4. d) Lateral meristem
  66. Which one of the following organisms is dependent on saprophytic mode of nutrition?
    1. a) Agaricus
    2. b) Ulothrix
    3. c) Riccia
    4. d) Cladophora
  67. Which one of the following has a bilateral symmetry in its body organization?
    1. a) Asterias
    2. b) Sea anemone
    3. c) Nereis
    4. d) Euchinus
  68. Which one of the following pairs of animals is warm blooded?
    1. a) Crocodile and Ostrich
    2. b) Hagfish and Dogfish
    3. c) Tortoise and Ostrich
    4. d) Peacock and Camel
  69. Which one of the following States of India is not covered by Food Forecasting Stations set up by the Central Water Commission?
    1. a) Rajasthan
    2. b) Jammu and Kashmir
    3. c) Tripura
    4. d) Himachal Pradesh
  70. The City of Cartagena, which is famous for Protocol on Biosafety , is located in
    1. a) Colombia
    2. b) Venezuela
    3. c) Brazil
    4. d) Guyana
  71. Which one of the following is the most populated State in India as per Census 2011?
    1. a) Goa
    2. b) Mizoram
    3. c) Meghalaya
    4. d) Sikkim
  72. Which among the following countries of South America does the Tropic of Capricornnot pass through?
    1. a) Chile
    2. b) Bolivia
    3. c) Paraguay
    4. d) Brazil
  73. Which one of the following is not correct about Sargasso Sea?
    1. a) It is characterized with anticyclonic circulation of ocean currents
    2. b) It records the highest salinity in Atlantic Ocean
    3. c) It is located west of Gulf Stream and east of Canary Current
    4. d) It confined in gyre of calm and motionless water
  74. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
    List - I List - II
    (City) (Product)
    A. Detroit 1. Motorcar
    B. Antwerp 2. Diamond cutting
    C. Tokyo 3. Steel
    D. Harbin 4. Shipbuilding

    Code :

    A B C D
    1. a) 3 4 2 1
    2. b) 3 2 4 1
    3. c) 1 4 2 3
    4. d) 1 2 4 3
  75. Which one of the following is not situated on Varanasi - Kanyakumari National Highway?
    1. a) Satna
    2. b) Rewa
    3. c) Katni
    4. d) Jabalpur
  76. Which one of the following methods is not suitable for urban rainwater harvesting?
    1. a) Rooftop recharge pit
    2. b) Recharge wells
    3. c) Gully plug
    4. d) Recharge trench
  77. If one plots the tank irrigation in India and superimposes it with map of well irrigation , one may find that the two are negatively related. Which of the following statements explain the phenomenon?
    1. Tank irrigation predates well irrigation.
    2. Tank irrigation is in the areas with imprevious surface layers.
    3. Well irrigation requires sufficient ground water reserves.
    4. Other forms of irrigation are not available.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    1. a) 1, 2 and 3
    2. b) 2 and 3 only
    3. c) 3 and 4
    4. d) 1 and 4
  78. When hot water is placed into an empty water bottle, the bottle keeps its shape and does not soften. What type of plastic is the water bottle made from?
    1. a) Thermoplastic
    2. b) PVC
    3. c) Polyurethane
    4. d) Thermosetting
  79. Which of the following is/are function / functions?
    1. q + w
    2. q
    3. w
    4 . H - TS
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    1. a) 1 and 4 only
    2. b) 1, 2 and 4
    3. c) 2, 3 and 4
    4. d) 1 only
  80. For a certain reaction , DGq = -45 kJ/mol and DHq = -90 kJ/mol at 0oC. What is the minimum temperature at which the reaction will become spontaneous, assuming that DHq and DSq are independent of temperature?
    1. a) 273 K
    2. b) 298 K
    3. c) 546 K
    4. d) 596 K
  81. The PCl5 molecule has trigonal bipyramidal structure. Therefore , the hybridization of p orbitals should be
    1. a) sp2
    2. b) sp3
    3. c) dsp2
    4. a) dsp3
  82. In spherical polar coordinates (l, q, a), q denotes the polar angle around z-axis and a denotes the azimuthal angle raised from x-axis . Then the y-component of P is given by
    1. a) Psinq sina
    2. b) Psinq cosa
    3. c) Pcosq sina
    4. d) Pcosq cosa
  83. For an ideal gas , which one of the following statements does not hold true?
    1. a) The speed of all gas molecules is same
    2. b) The kinetic energies of all gas molecules are not same
    3. c) The potential energy of the gas molecules is zero
    4. d) There is no interactive force between the molecules.
  84. What is constellation?
    1. a) A particular pattern of equidistant stars from the earth in the sky
    2. b) A particular pattern of stars that may not be equidistant from the earth in the sky
    3. c) A particular pattern of planets of our solar system in the sky
    4. d) A particular pattern and satellites in the sky due to their position in the space
  85. The Hooke's law is valid for
    1. a) only proportioanl region of the stress strain curve
    2. b) entire stress strain curve
    3. c) entire elastic region of the sress strain curve
    4. d) elastic as well as plastic region of the stress strain curve
  86. Which one of the following statements regarding histone proteins is correct?
    1. a) Histones are proteins that are present in mitochondrial membrane
    2. b) Histones are proteins that are present in nucleus in association with DNA
    3. c) Histones are proteins associated with lipids in the cytosol
    4. d) Histones are proteins associated with carbohydrates in the cytosol
  87. Which one of the following statements regarding haemoglobin is correct?
    1. a) Haemoglobin present in RBC can carry only oxygen but not caron dioxide
    2. b) Haemoglobin of RBC can carry both oxygen and carbon dioxide
    3. c) Haemoglobin of RBC can carry only carbon dioxide
    4. d) Haemoglobin is only used for blood clotting and not for carrying gases.
  88. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of passage of light in a compound microscope?
    1. a) Condenser - Objective lens - Eye - piece - Body tube
    2. b) Objective lens - Condenser - Body tube - Eye piece
    3. c) Condenser - Objective lens - Body tube - Eyepiece
    4. d) Eyepiece - Objective lens - Body tube - Mirror
  89. Which one of the following statements is correct?
    1. a) Urea is produced in liver
    2. b) Urea is produced in blood
    3. c) Urea is produced from digestion of starch
    4. d) Urea is produced in lung and kidney
  90. Which one of the following river valleys of India is under the influence of intensive gully erosion?
    1. a) Kosi
    2. b) Chambal
    3. c) Damodar
    4. d) Brahmaputra
  91. Which one of the following may be the true characteristic of cyclones?
    1. a) Temperate cyclones move from west to east with westerlies whereas tropical cyclones follow trade winds
    2. b) The front side of cyclone is known as the 'eye of cyclone'.
    3. c) Cyclones posses a centre of high pressure surrounded by closed isobars
    4. d) Hurricanes are well known tropical cyclones which develop over mid latitudes.
  92. The Headquarters of the International Tropical Timber Organization is locaed at
    1. a) New Delhi
    2. b) Yokohama
    3. c) Madrid
    4. d) Jakarta
  93. Atmospheric conditions are well governed by humidity. Which one among the following may best define humidity?
    1. a) Form of suspended water droplets caused by condensatoin
    2. b) Deoisutuib if atmospheric moisture
    3. c) Almost microscopically small drops of water condensed from and suspended in air
    4. d) The moisture content of the atmosphere at a particular time and place
  94. The Shompens are the vulnerable tribal group of
    1. a) Jharkhand
    2. b) Odisha
    3. c) West Bengal
    4. d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  95. Which one of the following cities was not included in the list of smart cities in India?
    1. a) Silvassa
    2. b) Jorhat
    3. c) Itanagar
    4. d) Kavaratti
  96. Find the correct arrangement of the following urban agglomerations in descending order as per their population size according to Census 2011.
    1. a) Delhi - Mumbai - Kolkata - Chennai
    2. b) Mumbai - Delhi - Kolkata - Chennai
    3. c) Mumbai - Kolkata - Delhi - Chennai
    4. d) Kolkata - Chennai - Mumbai - Delhi
  97. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
    List - I List - II
    (Type of Lake) (Example)
    A. Tectonic 1. Lonar Lake
    B. Crater 2. Gangabal Lake
    C. Glacial 3. Purbasthali Lake
    D. Fluvial 4. Bhimtal Lake
    Code :
    A B D D
    1. a) 4 1 2 3
    2. b) 4 2 1 3
    3. c) 3 1 2 4
    4. d) 3 2 1 4
  98. The Andaman group of islands and the Nicobar group of islands are separated by which one of the following latitudes?
    1. a) 8o N latitude
    2. b) 10o N latitude
    3. c) 12o N latitude
    4. d) 13o N latitude
  99. Damanganga Reservoir Project with about 115 km of minor canals and distributaries is located in
    1. a) NCT
    2. b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
    3. c) Puducherry
    4. d) Goa
  100. Consider the following statements relating to Coal India Limited :
    1. It is designated as a 'Maha Ratna' company under the Ministry of Coal.
    2. It is the single largest coal producing company in the world.
    3. The Headquarters of Coal India Limited is located at Ranchi Jharkhand.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. a) 1 only
    2. b) 1 and 2 only
    3. c) 2 and 3 only
    4. d) 1, 2 and 3
  101. Afro-Asian solidarity as a central element of India's foreign policy was intiated by which of the following Prime Ministers?
    1. a) Narendra Modi
    2. b) I.K. Gujral
    3. c) J.L. Nehru
    4. d) Manmohan Singh
  102. The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund is operated by which one of the following bodies?
    1. a) The Prime Minister's Office (PMO)
    2. b) The National Disaster Management Authority
    3. c) The Ministry of Finance
    4. d) The National Development Council (NDC)
  103. Which one of the following statements with regard to India's surgical strike mission inside Pakistan Occupied Kashmir is correct?
    1. a) It is conducted in the year 2018
    2. b) It was led by the Indian Air Force
    3. c) It was not given any name
    4. d) It was sanctioned by the United Nations
  104. Which one of the following statements about the National Green Tribunal is not correct?
    1. a) It was set up in the year 2010
    2. b) It is involved in effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests.
    3. c) It may consider giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property
    4. d) It is bound by the procedures laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure , 1908.
  105. Which of the following statements about the provisions of the Constitution of India with regard to the State of Jammu and Kashmir is not correct ?
    1. a) The Directive Principles of State Policy do not apply
    2. b) Article 35A gives some special rights to the permanent residents of the State with regard to employment, settlement and property.
    3. c) Article 19(1) (f) has been omitted
    4. d) Article 368 is not applicable for the amendment of Constittuion of the State.
  106. In 1921 , during which one of the following tours, Gandhiji shaved his head and began wearing loincloth in order to identity with the poor?
    1. a) Ahmadabad
    2. b) Champaran
    3. c) Chauri Chaura
    4. d) South India
  107. Simla was founded as a hill station to use as strategic place for billeting troops, guarding frontier and launching campaign during the course of
    1. a) Anglo-Maratha War
    2. b) Anglo-Burmese War
    3. c) Anglo-Gurkha War
    4. d) Anglo-Afghan War
  108. Which politician in British India had opposed to a Pakistan that would mean "Muslim Raj here and Hindu Raj elsewhere"?
    1. a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
    2. b) Sikandar Hayat Khan
    3. c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
    4. d) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
  109. Match List -I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
    List - I List - II
    (Author) (Book)
    A. Sekhar Bandyopadhyay 1. Jawaharlal Nehru : A Biography, Vol-I, 1889-1947
    B. Sarvepalli Gopal, 2. From Plassey to Partition : A History of Modern India.
    C. David Hardiman 3. The Ascendancy of the Congress in Uttar Pradesh , 1926 - 1934
    D. Gyanendra Pandey 4. Gandhi in His Time and Ours

    Code :
    A B C D
    1. a) 2 4 1 3
    2. a) 2 1 4 3
    3. a) 3 1 4 2
    4. a) 3 4 1 2
  110. Eight States have achieved more than 99% household electrification prior to the launch of 'Saubhagya Scheme'. Which one of the following is not among them?
    1. a) Kerala
    2. b) Punjab
    3. c) Himachal Pradesh
    4. d) Madhya Pradesh
  111. In October 2018, India was elected as a member to the United Nations Human Rights Council for a period of
    1. a) fiver years
    2. b) four years
    3. c) three years
    4. d) two years
  112. Consider the following statements about the Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) :
    1. It is the implementing agency of Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP).
    2. It has registered as an independent society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. a) 1 only
    2. b) 2 only
    3. c) Both 1 and 2
    4. d) Neither 1 nor 2
  113. Consider the following statements about a scheme launched by the Government of India :
    It was launched to provide social security during old age and to protect elderly persons aged 60 years and above against a future fall in their interest income due to uncertain market conditions. The scheme enables old age income security for senior citizens through provision of assured pension / return linked to the subscription amount based on government guarantee to Life Insurance Corporation of India (LICI) .
    Identify the scheme.
    1. a) Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana
    2. b) Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana
    3. c) Liveability Index Programme
    4. d) Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana
  114. Who among the following won India's first ever gold medal in the International Youth Olympic Games (2018) held in Argentina?
    1. a) Neeraj Chopra
    2. b) Praveen Chitravel
    3. c) Jeremy Lalrinnunga
    4. d) Suraj Panwar
  115. E.K. Janaki Ammal National Award on Taxonomy is administered by the
    1. a) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
    2. b) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
    3. c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
    4. d) Ministry of Environment , Forest and Climate Change
  116. Which one of the following pairs of military training institute of India and locaiton is not correctly matched?
    1. a) Army War College : Mhow
    2. b) High Altitude Warfare School : Gulmarg
    3. c) Army Air Defence College : Pune
    4. d) Rashtriya Indian Military College : Dehradun
  117. Which one of the following viruses is responsible for the recent death of lions in Gir National Park?
    1. a) Canine Distemper Virus
    2. b) Nipah Virus
    3. c) Hendra Virus
    4. d) Foot and Mouth Disease Virus
  118. The 2018, which of the following countries have leagilized the possession and use of recreational cannabis ?
    1, America
    2. Canada
    3. Nigeria
    4. Uruguay
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. a) 1, 2 and 3
    2. b) 2 and 4 only
    3. c) 1 and 4 only
    4. d) 1, 2 and 4
  119. Which of the following are the benefits of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) ?
    1. Free treatment available at all public and empanelled private hospitals in times of need
    2. Cashless and paperless access to quality health care services
    3. Government provides health insurance cover of up to Rs.5,00,000 per family per year
    4. Pre-existing diseases are not covered
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    1. a) 1 and 3 only
    2. b) 1 , 2 and 3
    3. c) 2 and 4 only
    4. d) 2, 3 and 4
  120. The 11th BRICS in 2019 will be hosted by
    1. a) China
    2. b) Russia
    3. c) Brazil
    4. d) India

CDS 1 Answer Key with Questions for Paper 3 (Elementary Mathematics)

1 C      
2 C      
3 D      
4 C      
6 D      
7 B      
8 A      
9 A      
10 D      
13 A      
14 B      
15 C      
16 D      
17 A      
18 A      
20 A      
21 B      
22 C      
24 A      
26 C      
27 B      
28 C      
29 B      
30 B      
32 C      
33 B      
34 D      
36 B      
37 C      
38 A      
39 B      
40 B      
41 A      
43 B      
44 A      
46 C      
47 B      
48 C      
49 C      
50 A      
52 A      
53 C      
54 D      
55 C      
56 D      
58 C      
59 D      
60 B      
62 A      
63 D      
64 C      
65 B      
66 D      
67 D      
68 *      
69 D      
70 A      
71 C      
72 C      
74 D      
76 A      
77 A      
78 D      
80 B      
81 C      
82 D      
83 C      
85 C      
86 B      
87 D      
88 B      
90 D      
91 C      
92 C      
93 A      
94 D      
98 C      
99 B      
100 B      

Expected CDS 1 Cut Off 2019

The CDS Exam was held on Feb 3, 2019 and CDS aspirants appeared for various posts under CDS Exam such as IMA (100 vacancies), INA (45 vacancies), AFA (32 vacancies) and OTA (225 vacancies).


Course Cut off Marks CDS 1 - 2016 Cut off Marks CDS 2 - 2016 Cut off Marks CDS 1 - 2017 Cut off Marks CDS 2 - 2017 Cut off Marks CDS 1 - 2018 (Expected)
Cut off Marks CDS 2 - 2018 (Expected)
Cut off Marks CDS 1 - 2019 (Expected)
IMA 72 105 125 120 105 ± 3 100 ± 3 110 ± 3
INA 63 90 118 111 95 ± 3 90 ± 3 100 ± 3
AFA 123 135 114 135 118 ± 3 115 ± 3 120 ± 3
OTA (Men) 68 72 82 86 90 ± 3 82 ± 3 85 ± 3
OTA (Women) 68 72 82 86 90 ± 3 82 ± 3 85 ± 3

About CDS 1 Answer Key 2019 

NeoStencil in collaboration with its top partnered IAS coaching institutes in Delhi will prepare CDS 1 Answer Key and CDS 1 cut off. The Union Public Service Commission will be conducting CDS (Combined Defence Service) examination for recruitment into Defence Institutions on 3rd February 2019. As always NeoStencil will be the first to announce the UPSC CDS Answer Key with explanations and sources as soon as the exam ceases, for the benefit of the candidates who would like to get a fair idea of how they performed and check their answers. CDS exam Answer Key will be helpful to assess your exam performance and check your eligibility for next level.
CDS 1 2019 Answer Key includes answers to Question Papers with Score calculator along with their sources. UPSC CDS 1 Answer Key helps to determine CDS cut off 2018 based on a large number of students and experienced teachers from Delhi s top IAS coaching institutes. Register now on NeoStencil and download the CDS 1 Answer Key with detailed explanations and their sources.

The exam is being held to recruit for prestigious Defence Institutions namely, Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers Training Academy. The cut off will be decided by merit, based on GS, English and Mathematics (IMA, INA and AF (a), and GK and English for OTA of CDS Exam. Candidates who have appeared for CDS Exam can check the CDS 2019 Answer Key on NeoStencil.

Prepared by Top IAS Coachings in Delhi

NeoStencil offers Online IAS Classes through its unique LIVE Online platform for IAS/UPSC test preparation where you can access classrooms and test series program of the best teachers of India, from the comfort of your home. Students preparing for various Civil Services exam through NeoStencil and its associated institutes have secured 43 out of top 100 ranks and more than 500 total selections in the IAS Results in 2017. If you are interested in UPSC Online preparation from Top Institutes of IAS Coaching in Delhi, please feel free to check the multitude of courses we have for Live Online Classes for IAS and other state services. To read student testimonials, click here .

CDS Syllabus, Exam Pattern & Notification



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