Public Administration optional by Lukmaan IAS for UPSC Mains 2019 - New Batch Enrol Now expand_less

CDS 2 Answer Key | Question Paper, Answers and Cut Off


We are the first to launch an accurate and comprehensive CDS 2 2018 Answer Key. UPSC CDS Answer Key (all sets) with detailed solutions and sources is LIVE now! We also have a score calculator for you to check your score instantly!


CDS 2 2018 Answer Key with Questions for Paper 1 (English)


Q. No Set A Set B Set C Set D
1 A      
2 B   C  
3 D   D  
4 B   A  
5 A   D  
6 C   D  
7 A   A  
8 B   B  
9 C   D  
10 A   B  
11 B   A  
12 B   C  
13 A   A  
14 D   B  
15 A   C  
16 C   A  
17 A   B  
18 C   B  
19 D   A  
20 B   D  
21 A   A  
22 C   C  
23 D   A  
24 A   C  
25 B   D  
26 B   B  
27 C   A  
28 A   D  
29 D   A  
30 B   B  
31 D   C  
32 D   C  
33 B   C  
34 A   C  
35 D   D  
36 D   D  
37 D   A  
38 C   C  
39 C   B  
40 C   D  
41 C   C  
42 D   A  
43 D   B  
44 A   A  
45 C   B  
46 B   D  
47 D   D  
48 C   A  
49 A   A  
50 B   B  
51 A   B  
52 B   A  
53 D      
54 D   D  
55 A   D  
56 A   C  
57 B   B  
58 B   A  
59 A      
60        
61 D      
62 D      
63 C      
64 C      
65 C      
66 B      
67 A      
68 D   C  
69 D      
70 D      
71 B   D  
72 A   D  
73 C   B  
74 D   A  
75 A   B  
76 D   A  
77 A   B  
78 D   C  
79 A   C  
80 A   B  
81 B   A  
82 A   D  
83 D   D  
84 B   D  
85 A   B  
86 D   A  
87 D   C  
88 B   D  
89 C   A  
90     D  
91     A  
92 D   D  
93 D   A  
94 B   A  
95 A   B  
96 B   A  
97 A   D  
98 B   B  
99 B   A  
100 A   D  
101     D  
102     B  
103     A  
104     C  
105     D  
106     A  
107     B  
108     B  
109     C  
110     A  
111 C   D  
112 D   B  
113 A   D  
114 D   D  
115 D   B  
116 A   A  
117 D   D  
118 A   D  
119 B   D  
120 C   C  

Click me

CDS 2 Answer Key 2018 Paper 1 - Score Calculator


How to use Score Calculator

  • For every question attempted by you, choose the corresponding option which you have marked by clicking on the radio button on the right of every option.
  • Make sure you choose the option attempted by you to ensure your accurate score.
  • Once you have marked all options, fill in the form.
  • Click on the Check Result button.


The questions are in order as in Set (A)


  1. Directions :
    Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentences. Select the words or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    My teacher was ______ us for being late
    1. a) annoyed at
    2. b) annoyed with
    3. c) annoyed about
    4. d) annoys
  2. Sandhya ______ me from the top of the house
    1. a) sthouted to
    2. b) shouted at
    3. c) shouted on
    4. d) shouted
  3. Ravi has the habit of _______ a headache
    1. a) complaining
    2. b) complain
    3. c) complaining to
    4. d) complaining of
  4. I always want to go alone for a ride, but my mother _____ going with my brother
    1. a) insists
    2. b) insists on
    3. c) insists in
    4. d) insisted
  5. The new student found it difficult to ______ with his classmates
    1. a) get along
    2. b) get among
    3. c) get well
    4. d) get up
  6. The visiting Diplomat _____ the Prime Minister
    1. a) called in
    2. b) called at
    3. c) called on
    4. d) called up on
  7. ______ sincere he would have got the prize.
    1. a) Had he been
    2. b) Has he been
    3. c) Would he have been
    4. d) He is
  8. Ten years ______ for me to live in a foreign country
    1. a) are a long time
    2. b) is a long time
    3. c) has a long time
    4. d) of time
  9. If I _______ you I ______ love to accept the officer
    1. a) was _____ will
    2. b) was _____ would
    3. c) were _____ would
    4. d) were ____ will
  10. My sister asked me _____ willing to go abroad for my studies
    1. a) If I were
    2. b) If I could be
    3. c) whether I should be
    4. d) whether I will
  11. Directions :-
    Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearer to meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.

    Rahul is always thrifty
    1. a) reckless
    2. b) economical
    3. c) naïve
    4. d) extravagant
  12. His salubriuos words calmed the students
    1. a) provoking
    2. b) pleasant
    3. c) ridiculous
    4. d) thanking
  13. He felt desolated after he lost his business
    1. a) deserted
    2. b) joyful
    3. c) strong
    4. d) annoyed
  14. Don’t condone such acts which lead to unrest in the country
    1. a) regard
    2. b) punish
    3. c) aware of
    4. d) overlook
  15. A good work place shall not encourage ineptitude even in a hidden manner.
    1. a) incompetence
    2. b) courage
    3. c) gossip
    4. d) radical thinking
  16. Learning of foreign language should not impede one's mother tongue learning
    1. a) facilitate
    2. b) acts for
    3. c) hinder
    4. d) accept
  17. Extradition of the leader of the group was debated for hours in the meeting.
    1. a) acceptance
    2. b) sentence
    3. c) extension
    4. d) deportation
  18. It was felt that the decision to remove the group from the exercise would be deterimental to the organization.
    1. a) beneficial
    2. b) harsh
    3. c) disadvantageous
    4. d) demanding
  19. His derisive behaviour has led to the situation was face now.
    1. a) mockery
    2. b) conducive
    3. c) encouraging
    4. d) contemptuous
  20. Any classroom should provide an engaging environment for learners.
    1. a) carefree
    2. b) appealing
    3. c) thinking
    4. d) dreaming
  21. Passages :
    Directions :

    In this section you have few short passages . After each passage , you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answer based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

    Passage 1

    Daily consumption of a certain form of curcumin improved memory and mood in people with mild, age-related memory loss. The research examined the effects of an easily absorbed curcumin supplement on memory performance in people without dementia, as well as curcumin's potential impact on the microscopic plaques and tangled in the brains of people with Alzheimer's disease. Found in turmeric, curcumin has previously been shown to have anit-inflammatory and antioxidant properties in laboratory studies. It has also been suggested as a possible reason that senior citizens in India, where curcumin is a dietary staple, have a lower prevalence of Alzheimer's disease and better cognitive performance.

    Which of the following statements are true?

    1. Senior citizens in India have high level of Alzheimer's disease because of consumptionof turmeric.
    2. Senior citizens in India do not have high prevalence of Alzheimer's because of consumption of turmeric.
    3. Consumption of turmeric enhances cognitive performance.
    4. Curcumin is an antioxidant.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. a) 2, 3 and 4
    2. b) 1, 3 and 4
    3. c) 1 and 4 only
    4. d) 1 and 3 only
  22. Curcumin has positive effect on people
    1. a) without dementia
    2. b) with Alzheimer's disease
    3. c) without dementia and with Alzheimer's disease
    4. d) with dementia and with Alzheimer's disease
  23. Which word in the passage means 'earlier'?
    1. a) Performance
    2. b) Absorbed
    3. c) Properties
    4. d) Previously
  24. Eating turmeric
    1. a) will reduce the change of getting Alzheimer's disease
    2. b) will increase curcumin
    3. c) will enhance dementia
    4. d) will reduce chance of getting cancer
  25. ___________ of a disease in a region depends on the food habits too
    1. a) Dominance
    2. b) Prevalence
    3. c) Affection
    4. d) Death
  26. Passage 2
    Mr. Rowland Hill, when a young man, was walking through the Lake district, when he one day saw the postman deliver a letter to a woman at a cottage door. The woman turned it over and examined it, and then returned it, saying she could not pay the postage, which was a shiling. Hearing that the letter was from her brother, Mr. Hill paid the postage , in spite of the maniferst unwillingness of the woman. As soon as the postman was out of sight, she showed Mr. Hill how his money had been wasted, as far as she was concerned. The sheet was blank. There was an agreement between her brother and herself that as long as all went well with him, he should send a blank sheet in this way once a quarter , and she thus had tidings of him without expense of postage.

    The story uses irony as a technique becaue
    1. a) the woman returned her own brother's letter without opening it
    2. b) the woman broke the agreement of receiving blank letters to convey well being of her brother
    3. c) Mr. Hill accepted the letter addressed to the woman
    4. d) in the modern times a brother has no time to write a letter to his own siste
  27. The woman returned the letter to the postman because
    1. a) she could not pay the postage
    2. b) the letter was not addressed to her
    3. c) she already knew the contents of the letter
    4. d) she hated the person who wrote the letter
  28. Mr. Hill paid the postage because
    1. a) the letter was from her brother
    2. b) the woman was his relative
    3. c) the letter was addressed to him
    4. d) he wanted to be kind to her
  29. The envelope contained
    1. a) a currency not
    2. b) two written sheets
    3. c) no sheet at all
    4. d) a blank sheet
  30. The woman and her brother had agreed that
    1. a) the letter with no postage meant good news
    2. b) the blank sheet meant being well
    3. c) the blank sheet meant bad news
    4. d) the letter with no postage meant unimportant news
  31. Passage 3
    In good many cases unnecessary timidity makes the trouble worse than it needs to be. Public opinion is always more tyrannical towards those who obviously fear it than towards those who feel indifferent to it. A dog will bark more loudly and bite more easily when people are afraid of it than when they treat him with contempt, and the human herd has something of this same characteristic. If you show that you are afraid of them, you give promise of good hunting, whereas if you show indifference, they begin to doubt their own power and , therefore, tend to let you alone.

    If we are afraid of public opinion, the attitude of the people towards us is
    1. a) sympathetic
    2. b) indifferent
    3. c) admiraiton
    4. d) ruthless
  32. The statement 'A dog will bark more loudly and bite more easily when people are afraid of him, than when they treat him with contemp…' implies that
    1. a) barking dogs seldom bite
    2. b) we should not be afraid of dogs
    3. c) if we are afraid of others, they will leave us alone
    4. d) if we are afraid of people, they will try to scare us more
  33. The author compares men with dogs in respect of
    1. a) attacking others without any reason
    2. b) attacking others when they are weak
    3. c) barking and biting
    4. d) faithfullness to the master
  34. …. You give promise of good hunting' means
    1. a) you are vulnerable
    2. b) you are challenging
    3. c) you are indomitable
    4. d) you are confused
  35. Passage 4

    We live in a curious age. We are offered glimpses of a world civilization slowly emerging, for example, the U.N special agencies dedicated to health and education. But along with these are sights and sounds that suggest that the whole civilization is rapidly being destroyed. Two official policies clash, and instantly embassies are attacked by howling mobs of students, at once defying law, custom and usage. And that this may not be merely so many hot-headed lads escaping all control, and may itself be part of the policy of the political parties, that is, mob antics as additional propaganda to deceive world opinion, makes the situation even worse. What inspires these students to burn cars and books is not their political enthusiasm but a frenzied delight in destruction, an urge towards violent demolition.

    The author calls our age curious because
    1. a) it is an age of science and scientists are curious by nature
    2. b) it is witnessing the emergence of a world civilization
    3. c) it is witnessing incidents that threaten to shake the very foundations of civilization
    4. d) it is an age of contradictions consisting of constructive and destructive activities
  36. It is deplorable to witness mob attacks on embassies follwing a a clash of policies of two official policy makers because
    1. a) students should not take part in politics , but should concentrate on their studies
    2. b) they may result in the loss of lives of young and promising students`
    3. c) they are overlooked by the policy planners themselves
    4. d) they are indicative of the complete failure of the government in controlling the rebellious students.
  37. One aspect of the mob indulging in violence and arson is that they
    1. a) destroy very costly things like vehicles
    2. b) destroy very valuable artifacts and books
    3. c) get a mad delight in destruction for the sake of destruction only
    4. d) are motivated by certain political ideology to resort to destruction
  38. In the passage the word 'demolition' has the meaning as the word
    1. a) defying
    2. b) antics
    3. c) desctruciton
    4. d) urge
  39. SPOTTING ERRORS
    Directions :
    Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) . Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the correspoding letter ie.., (a) , (b) , (c) . If you find no error , your response should be indicated as (d)

    The letter has been written (a) ; I insist on (b) it being sent at once (c) No error (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  40. "I'm tired of my boys, "Said the mother, (a) ; "Both of them keep quarrelling all the time (b) Right now also they are quarrelling with one another" (c) No error (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  41. Sherly wants to know (a) whether you are going (b) to Delhi today night. (c) No error (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  42. The visitor's to the zoo are requested, in the interest of all concerned, not to carry sticks,stones or food inside and not to tease animals .(c) No error (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  43. The legendary hero (a) laid down his precious life (b) for our country (c) No error (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  44. Our gardener, which is very lazy, (a) says that (b) there will be no apples this year (c). No error (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  45. When I asked the guest (a) what she would like to drink (b) she replied that she preferred coffee much more than tea (c) No error (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  46. No sooner did I reached there (a) the children left the place (b) with their parents (c) No error (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  47. I did not want to listen to him (a) but has was admant and (b) discussed about the matter (c) No error (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  48. Please note (a) that the interview for the post (b) shall be held on June 15, 2019 between 10.00 am to 2.00 p.m (c) No error (d)
    1. a) Option A
    2. b) Option B
    3. c) Option C
    4. d) Option D
  49. Directions :
    Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
    CLOZE COMPREHENSION 1

    This cultural form _________ from japan has a name which means
    1. a) originating
    2. b) originates
    3. c) originated
    4. d) organizing
  50. whimsical or impromptu pictures'. It _________ in existence since
    1. a) had been
    2. b) has been
    3. c) was
    4. d) is
  51. the 12th century when the first _______ for this art form was seen
    1. a) instance
    2. b) incident
    3. c) accident
    4. d)
  52. Since the language itself is read from right to left, the books with _______
    1. a) that
    2. b) this
    3. c) these
    4. d) which
  53. art form follow the same pattern _______ when English translations
    1. a) for
    2. b) beginning
    3. c) during
    4. d) initially
  54. were made , they flipped the pictures and published it. This ______
    1. a) enrage
    2. b) enlarged
    3. c) engraved
    4. d) enraged
  55. the purists as it showed left-handed samurai, who did not exist in the original book. Hence, nowadays even English translations follow _______ right to left format The name of this art form is Manga
    1. a) the
    2. b) a
    3. c) some
    4. d) same
  56. So the ________ is that in the present social structure, discipline
    1. a) difficulty
    2. b) difficult
    3. c) difference
    4. d) different
  57. has become an important factor because we nat large numbers of children ________
    1. a) educated
    2. b) to be educated
    3. c) to be educating
    4. d) to educate
  58. together and ______
    1. a) as quick as possible
    2. b) as quickly as possible
    3. c) as possible as
    4. d) quickly
  59. Educated to be what ? To be bank clerks or super salesman , capitalists or commissars. When you are a superman _______ as/or a super governor or a subtle
    1. a) of some king
    2. b) of same kind
    3. c) of some
    4. d) of same
  60. parlimentary debater, what have you done? You are probably very clever, full of facts, anybody can pick up facts ; but we are human beings, not factual machines, not ______ routine automatons. But again, sirs, you are not interested
    1. a) beast
    2. b) bear
    3. c) beastly
    4. d) bare
  61. You are listening to me and _______ each other , you are not
    1. a) smiling
    2. b) smiling to
    3. c) smiling with
    4. d) smiling at
  62. going to do a thing about radically changing the education system; so it will drag on ______ a monstrous revolution, which will merely be another
    1. a) untill there are
    2. b) still there is
    3. c) till there was
    4. d) till there is
  63. substitution there will be much more control because the totaliitarian government knows how to shape the minds and hearts of the people, they ______ the trick
    1. a) had learnt
    2. b) learnt
    3. c) have learnt
    4. d) had been learnt
  64. Directions :
    Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression

    He makes decision on the fly
    1. a) He decides quickly without any seriousness
    2. b) He decides with all seriousness
    3. c) He decides nonchalantly
    4. d) He is unwilling to decide
  65. Follow suit
    1. a) Following someone's suit
    2. b) Suiting to someone
    3. c) Doing the same as someone else has just done
    4. d) Doing the same kind of mistake
  66. Close shave
    1. a) Shaving very closely
    2. b) Miraculous escape
    3. c) Saving someone from danger
    4. d) Easy escape
  67. At the crossroads
    1. a) At important point of a decision
    2. b) At an important point of journey
    3. c) At the important road of a journey
    4. d) At an important stage or decision
  68. A pearl of wisdom
    1. a) A wise man
    2. b) An important piece of order
    3. c) An important piece of pearl
    4. d) An important piece of advice
  69. ORDERNING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
    Directions :
    Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled . These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S and are given below each sentence in four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d) . You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly

    have become integral to most people's lives (P) debate for years as the devices (Q) have drawn intense interest and (R) safety questions about cell phones (S)
    1. a) P Q R S
    2. b) R S P Q
    3. c) S P Q R
    4. d) S R Q P
  70. by means of education (P) civilization to bring about (Q) it is difficult in modern (R) an integrated individual (S)
    1. a) R Q S P
    2. b) R S P Q
    3. c) S P Q R
    4. d) P R Q S
  71. is that it is not professional enough (P) have not done their home work (Q) a valid criticism of the profession of politics in India(R) as the majority of its practitioners (S)
    1. a) R S P Q
    2. b) R P S Q
    3. c) S P Q R
    4. d) P Q R S
  72. that suit partisan political objectives (P) when great historical figures are appropriated,(Q) we are living at a time (R) and reduced into stereotypes(S)
    1. a) R Q P S
    2. b) R Q S P
    3. c) S Q R P
    4. d) P R Q S
  73. it is in this context that (P) and prosperity must be viewed (Q) the role of agriculture(R) as a provider of jobs(S)
    1. a) P Q R S
    2. b) R S P Q
    3. c) P R S Q
    4. d) R S Q P
  74. and they largely relied on agriculture, fishing and hunting(P) the people had a subsistence economy(Q) from excavation sites indicate that (R) rich materials found (S)
    1. a) R Q P S
    2. b) Q S P R
    3. c) S P Q R
    4. d) S R Q P
  75. and that is 'To learn to say I am sorry'(P) something important enough that but surely there must be (R) everyone should learn it (S)
    1. a) R Q S P
    2. b) R Q P S
    3. c) S P Q R
    4. d) P R Q S
  76. or an independent judiciary(P) a free press is(Q) as essential a limb of democracy as a parliament (R) freely elected by the people(S)
    1. a) R Q S P
    2. b) Q R P S
    3. c) S P Q R
    4. d) Q R S P
  77. the opinion that a human life(P) and that he would quite like to live that long could span 125 years(R) there was a time when Gandhi expressed(S)
    1. a) S P R Q
    2. b) R Q P S
    3. c) S P Q R
    4. d) Q R S P
  78. I must say what I feel(P) I am a votary of truth and (Q) to what I may have said before(R) and think at a given moment without regards(S)
    1. a) R Q S P
    2. b) Q R P S
    3. c) P S R Q
    4. d) Q P S R
  79. The man in the competition(P) has been elected(Q) as the chairperson of the sports committee(R) in red who stood first(S)
    1. a) S P Q R
    2. b) S R P Q
    3. c) P S R Q
    4. d) Q R S P
  80. One of the difficulties the whole of manking(P) or affect the masses(Q) the day after tomorrow(R) is that we want to transform(S)
    1. a) S P Q R
    2. b) P R S Q
    3. c) S P R Q
    4. d) Q R S P
  81. The speaker of their inaction(P) has identified(Q) charging the opponents(R) many issues besides (S)
    1. a) P S Q R
    2. b) Q S R P
    3. c) S P R Q
    4. d) Q S P R
  82. The government and job markets(P) must offer convincing solutions(Q) to the crises in the rural economy(R) that are causing social ferment(S)
    1. a) Q R P S
    2. b) Q S R P
    3. c) S P R Q
    4. d) P R S Q
  83. The best part of literary flourishes(P) and locates the story with the larger framework of our world(Q) long formed journalism is that (R) it brings back the importance of writing skills(S)
    1. a) Q R P S
    2. b) R S P Q
    3. c) S P R Q
    4. d) P R S Q
  84. Children that grow into beautiful trees(P) of a warm home and supportive surroundings(Q) are like tender samplings with the sunshine and rain(S)
    1. a) Q R P S
    2. b) R P Q S
    3. c) R P S Q
    4. d) P R S Q
  85. We with real life experiences (P) tend to learn with interest(Q) when we see beauty in our work(R) and connect learning(S)
    1. a) Q R S P
    2. b) R P Q S
    3. c) S P R Q
    4. d) P R S Q
  86. Elementary education ensuring the growth of a nation(P) is inevitable(Q) in developing the children(R) to further education, thereby(S)
    1. a) Q R P S
    2. b) R P Q S
    3. c) S P R Q
    4. d) Q R S P
  87. National Building Organisation besides conducting surveys on housing(P) and disseminates the statistical information (Q) collects, tabulates(R) on housing and building construction activities(S)
    1. a) Q R P S
    2. b) R P Q S
    3. c) S P R Q
    4. d) R Q S P
  88. The Himalayan range sacred to the Gaddi people (P) is home (Q) to a chain of high altitude takes (R) that lowers over the Kangra valley(S)
    1. a) Q R P S
    2. b) S P R Q
    3. c) S Q R P
    4. d) R Q S P
  89. ORDERING SENTENCES
    Directions :
    In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumpled up and labelled P, Q, R and S . You are required to find the proper sequences of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

    S1. The giant wall of the Dhauladhar range in Himachal Pradesh is one of the most stunning sights in the Himalayas.

    P : As the life line of the region it acts as a watershed ridge between Chamba's Ravi river system and Kangra's Beas river system.

    Q : Although of modest altitude compared to other Himalayan ranges the highest Dhauladhar peak is less than 5,000 m.

    R : Thus , the Dhauladhar could be stated as the life line of the region.

    S : Despite of that, the range sweeps up an astounding 12,000 ft. from the valley floor, creating a barrier wall in that is striking to look at

    S6 : Looming over the hill stations of Dharmsala and McLeodganj, the Dhauladhar is a popular trekking destination.
    1. a) Q R P S
    2. b) S P Q R
    3. c) Q S R P
    4. d) R Q S P
  90. S1 : Truth is far more important than the teacher.

    P : Without self-knowledge , the airplane becomes the most destructive instrument in life; but with self knowledge, it is a means of human help.

    Q : Wisdom begins with selfknowledge ; and without self knowledge, mere information leads to destruction.

    R : In other words, you have to be the perfect teacher to create a new society; and to bring the perfect teacher into being, you have to understand yourself.

    S : Therefore you, who are the seeker of truth, have to be both the pupil and the teacher.

    S6 : So a teacher must obviously be one who is not within the clutches of society, who does not play power politics or seeks position or authorit.
    1. a) Q R S P
    2. b) S R Q P
    3. c) Q S R P
    4. d) R Q S P
  91. S1 : Though most of us talk of disicpline, what do we mean by that word ?

    P : The teacher would understand each child and help him in the way required.

    Q : But if you have fiver or six in a class , and an intelligent understanding teacher with a warm heart, I am sure there would be no need for discipline

    R : When you have a hundred boys in a class you will have to have discipline; otherwise there will be complete chaos.

    S : Discipline in schools becomes necessary when there is one teacher to a hundred boys and girls.

    S6 : And most of us are interested in mass movements, large schools with a great many boys and girls; wer are not interested in creative intelligence, therefore we put up huge schools with enormous attendances.
    1. a) Q R S P
    2. b) S R Q P
    3. c) Q S R P
    4. d) R Q P S
  92. S1 : Tolstoy Farm was founded in 1910 by which time Gandhi had already conceptialized ideas that we would develop in India.

    P : He was rich and used his money to buy the land and help set up the farm

    Q : A Jewish architect, Kallenbach was by his side through this period.

    R : Tolstoy Farm became the subject of reserch for different kinds of cooperative communities across the world.

    S : He first put in the social , moral religious components of his doctrine.

    S6 : Both he and Gandhi often referred to the time that they speny in Tolstoy Farm as among the happiest in their lives.
    1. a) Q R S P
    2. b) S Q P R
    3. c) S Q R P
    4. d) R Q P S
  93. S1 : Decentralized planning is a process of planning that begins from the grassroots level taking into confidence all the beneficiaries

    P : Under decentralized planning the operation is from bottom to top

    Q : It can be said that it is more connected with the capitalistic economies.

    R : It empowers the individuals and small groups to carry out their plans for their achievement of a common goal.

    S : The decentralized planning is implemented through market mecahnism

    S6 : But it cannot be described as undemocratic for most national states adopt such a planning now.
    1. a) Q R S P
    2. b) S R Q P
    3. c) S Q R P
    4. d) S R Q P
  94. S1 : It is doubtful if manking, through out his long history , has ever lived at all 'sustainably'.

    P : But in general mankind has regarded the environment as an endless 'resource' to be exploited and plundered.

    Q : May be a few isolated tribal groups found the necessary balance with nature lived without the desire for endless 'more'.

    R : Now we have reached a point where we are on the verge of destroying ourselves and most the life on earth.

    S : This process has accelerated greatly since the industrial revolution.

    S6 : The concept of 'sustainable' is so far from reality that it is almost laughable
    1. a) P Q R S
    2. b) Q P S R
    3. c) P Q S R
    4. d) S R Q P
  95. S1 : Measurement is an important concept in performance management .

    P : It also indicates where things are not going so well , so that corrective action can be taken.

    Q : It identifies where things are going well to provide the foundations for building further success.

    R : It is the basis for providing and generating feedback.

    S : Measuring performance is relatively easy for those who are responsible for achieving quantified targets for example sales.
    S6 : It is more difficutl in the case of knowledge workers for example scientists and teachers.
    1. a) R Q P S
    2. b) Q P S R
    3. c) P S Q R
    4. d) S P Q R
  96. S1 : Equity theory is concerned with perception people have about how they are being treated compared with others.

    P : To be dealt with euitably is to be treated fairly in comparison with another group of people or a relevant other person .

    Q : Equity involves feelings and perceptions and is always a comparative process.

    R : Equity theory states, in effect , that people will be better motivated if they are treated equitably and demotivated if they are treated inequaitably

    S : It is not synonymous with equality which means treateing everyone the same, since this would be inequitable if they deserve to be treated differently.

    S6 : This explains only one aspect of the process of motivation and job satisfaction , although it may be significant in terms of morale.
    1. a) P Q R S
    2. b) P Q S R
    3. c) R S Q P
    4. d) Q P R S
  97. S1 : We cannot understand the power of rumours and prophecies in history by checking whether they are factually correct or not.

    P : The rumours in 1857 began to make sense when seen in the contet of the policies the British pursued from the late 1820s.

    Q : Rumours circulate only when they resonate with the deeper fears and suspicious of people.

    R : Under the leadership of Governor General Lord William Bentinck, the British adopted policies aimed at "reforming" Indian society by introducing Western educatoin, Western ideas and Western Institutions.

    S : We need to see what they reflect about the minds of people who believed them - their fears and apprehensions, their faiths and convictions.

    S6 : With the cooperation of sections of Indian society they set up English - medium schools, colleges and universities which taught Western sciences and liberal arts.
    1. a) S Q P R
    2. b) Q S P R
    3. c) P R S Q
    4. d) R S P Q
  98. S1 : The Constittuion of India thus emerged through a process of intense debate and discussion.

    P : This was an unprecedented act of faith, for in other democracies the vote had been granted slowly, and in stages.

    Q : However, on one central feature of the Constitution there was substantial agreement.

    R : Many of the provisions were arrived at through a process of give and take, by forging a middle ground between two oppoed positions.

    S : This was onthe granting of the vote to every adult Indian.

    S6 : In countries such as the United States and the United Kingdom, only men with education were allowed into the charmed circle.
    1. a) P R S Q
    2. b) R Q S P
    3. c) S P R Q
    4. d) Q S R P
  99. ANTONYMS
    Directions :
    Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined wourd / words and mark your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.

    His ideas are obscure.
    1. a) New
    2. b) Clear
    3. c) Infamous
    4. d) Obscene
  100. Ravi is jovial and he makes the environment sanguine
    1. a) Pessimistic
    2. b) Optimistic
    3. c) Humorous
    4. d) Rebellious
  101. Question No 101
    1. Option A
    2. Option B
    3. Option C
    4. Option D
  102. Question No 102
    1. Option A
    2. Option B
    3. Option C
    4. Option D
  103. Question No 103
    1. Option A
    2. Option B
    3. Option C
    4. Option D
  104. Question No 104
    1. Option A
    2. Option B
    3. Option C
    4. Option D
  105. Question No 105
    1. Option A
    2. Option B
    3. Option C
    4. Option D
  106. Question No 106
    1. Option A
    2. Option B
    3. Option C
    4. Option D
  107. Question No 107
    1. Option A
    2. Option B
    3. Option C
    4. Option D
  108. Question No 108
    1. Option A
    2. Option B
    3. Option C
    4. Option D
  109. Question No 109
    1. Option A
    2. Option B
    3. Option C
    4. Option D
  110. REPORTED SPEECH
    Directions :
    Each item in this section has a direct statement followd by its reported form in indirect speech. Select the correct statement in indirect speech and mark it in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    The captain said to his soldiers, "Move forward and face the target now".
    1. a) The captain ordered his soldiers to move forward and face the target
    2. b) The captain informed his soldiers that they should move forward and face the target now.
    3. c) The captain asked his soldiers to move forward and face the target then
    4. d) The captain told his soldiers that they move forward and face the target immediately
  111. Vivek said to his friend, "Could you please turn off the switch?"
    1. a) Vivek told his friend to turn off the swtich
    2. b) Vivek asked his friend to please turn of the switch
    3. c) Vivek requested his friend to turn off the switch
    4. d) Vivek told his friend that he should turn off the switch
  112. The manager said to his colleagues, "We have received a serious threat to our business now and we need to act to face it."
    1. a) The manager told his colleagues that they had received a serious threat to our business then and they needed to act to face it.
    2. b) The manager told his colleagues that they received a serious threat to their busines then and they needed to act to face it
    3. c) The manager said his colleagues that they had received a serious threat to our business then and they needed to act to face it.
    4. d) The manager told his colleagues that they had received a serious threat to their business at that time and they needed to act to face it.
  113. Romila said to Rahim, "Where were your ideas when we faced the troubles last week?"
    1. a) Romila asked Rahim where his ideas had been when they had faced the trouble the week before
    2. b) Romila asked Rahim where his ideas had been when they faced the trouble the last week
    3. c) Romila requested Rahim where his ideas had been when they faced the trouble the week before
    4. d) Romila told Rahim where his ideas were when they faced the trouble the week before
  114. The actor said to his co-star, Sarita, "Will you go with me for a cup of tea in the evening today?"
    1. a) The actor said to his co-star if she would go for a cup of tea with him in evening today
    2. b) The actor told his co-star , Sarita if she would go with him for a cup of tea in evening that day
    3. c) The actor requests his co-star Sarita if she would go with him for a cup of tea in that evening that day
    4. d) The actor asked his co-star Sarita if she would go with him for a cup of tea in the evening that day.
  115. The preacher said to the crowd, "The Sun rises everyday for all of us withou any expectations in return."
    1. a) The preacher told the crowd that the Sun rose everyday for all of them without any expectations in return
    2. b) The preacher told the crowd that the Sun rises everyday for all of us without any expectations in return
    3. c) The preacher told the crowd that the Sun has risen everyday for all of them without any expectations in return
    4. d) The preacher told the crowd that the Sun rises everyday for all of them without any expectations in return
  116. PASSIVE VOICE
    Directions :
    Each item in this secftion has a sentence in active voice followed by four sentences one of which is the correct passive voice statement of the same. Select the correct one and mark it in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    The members of the parliament elect their group leader either by consensus or by voice vote.
    1. a) The group leader is elected by the members of the parliament either by consensus or by voice vote.
    2. b) The group leader was elected by the members of the parliament either by consensus or by voice vote
    3. c) The group leader has been elected by the members of the parliament either by consensus or by voice vote
    4. d) The members of the parliament are elected by their group leader either by consensus or by voice vote
  117. All the examinees have answered one particular question in the long answer writing section.
    1. a) One particular questions is answered by all the examinees in the long answer writing section.
    2. b) One particular queston was answered by all the examinees in the long answer writing section.
    3. c) All the examinees answered one particular queston in the long answer writing section
    4. d) One particular queston has been answered by all the examinees in the long answer writing section
  118. The writer show passed away recently has authored a dozen novels and a number of poetry collections.
    1. a) A dozen novels and a number of poetry collections have been authored by the writer who passed away recently
    2. b) A dozen novels and a number of poetry collections has been authored by the writer who passed away recently
    3. c) A dozen novels and a number of poetry collections were authored by the writer who passed away recently
    4. d) A dozen novels and a number of poetry collections had been authored by the writer who passed away recently
  119. Shut the door
    1. a) Shut the door
    2. b) Let the door be shut
    3. c) The door be shut
    4. d) The door is shut
  120. India won freedom with the blood and sweat of hundreds and thousands of Indians
    1. a) India had won freedom with the blood and sweat of hundreds and thousands of Indians
    2. b) Freedom had been won by Indai with the blood and sweat of hundreds and thousands of Indians
    3. c) Freedom was won by Inda with the blood and sweat of hundreds and thousands of Indians
    4. d) Freedom was won by hundreds and thousands of Indians with their blood and sweat

CDS Answer Key with Questions for Paper 2 (General Knowledge)

Q. No Set A Set B Set C Set D
1 B C C C
2 A A D D
3 A C D  
4 B A C  
5 D B A  
6 A C B A
7 B D C C
8   A B D
9   B B B
10   C B B
11 A A C A
12 A C B D
13 D   D D
14 D   B D
15 A   D A
16 B B A B
17 B A C B
18 D A B D
19 B B A B
20 A D C A
21   A B  
22 A B A A
23 D   B D
24 D   A D
25 A   A A
26 D A A D
27   A A  
28   D    
29 B D D B
30 C A D C
31 C A C C
32 D C D D
33   B D D
34   A A C
35   C A A
36 A B   B
37 C A D C
38 D B B B
39 B A A B
40 B A B B
41 A A D C
42 D A D B
43 D   C D
44 D D A B
45 A D B D
46 C C C A
47 D D A C
48 D   C B
49 A   A A
50 A   B C
51   A C B
52 D C D A
53 B D A B
54 A B B A
55 B B C A
56 D A A A
57 D D C A
58 C D    
59 A D   D
60 B A   D
61 C B C C
62 A D D D
63 C A   D
64 A     A
65 B B   A
66 C D A  
67 D B C D
68 A B D B
69 B B B A
70 C D B B
71 A C A D
72 C D D D
73   A D C
74   B D A
75   D A B
76 B C B B
77 D D B A
78 A D D A
79   C B B
80 B A A D
81 D B   A
82 B C A B
83 B B D  
84 B B D  
85 D B A  
86 C C D A
87 D B   A
88 A D   D
89 B B B D
90 D D C A
91 A C B B
92 C D A D
93 B D A A
94 A A B  
95 C A D B
96 B   A D
97 A D B B
98 B B   B
99 A A   B
100 A B   D
101 A D A C
102 A D A D
103   C D A
104 D A D B
105 D B A D
106 C B B C
107 D B D A
108 D D A C
109 C B   A
110 A A B B
111 B   D C
112 C A B D
113 B D B A
114 B D B B
115 B A D C
116 C D C A
117 B   D C
118 D   A  
119 B B B  
120 D C D  

What did you think of the exam? We'd love to hear from you. Do leave your feedback in the Comments Section.

CDS 2 Answer Key 2018 Paper 2 (General Knowledge) - Score Calculator

The questions are in order as in Set (A)


  1. Two reactants in a flask at room temperature are producin bubbles of a gas that run limewater milky. The rectants could be
    1. a) zinc and hydrochloric acid
    2. b) magnesium carbonate and hydrochloric acid
    3. c) methane and oxygen
    4. d) copper and dulute hydrochloric acid
  2. How many moles of CO can be obtained by reacting 2.0 mole of CH4 with 2.0 mole of O2 according to the equation given below ?
    CH4(g) + 1/2 O2 ® CO + 2H2
    1. a) 2.0
    2. b) 0.5
    3. c) 2.5
    4. d) 4.0
  3. Reaction between which of the following two reactants will produce hydrogen gas?
    1. a) Magnesiuma and hydrochloric acid
    2. b) Copper and dilute nitric acid
    3. c) Calcium carbonate and hydrochloric acid
    4. d) Zinc and nitric acid
  4. Which of the following characteristics is common to hydrogen , nitrogen, oxygen and carbon dioxide?
    1. a) They are all diatomic
    2. b) They are all gases at room temperature
    3. c) They are all coloured
    4. d) They all have same reactivity
  5. The compound C7H7NO2 has
    1. a) 17 atoms in a molecule of the compound
    2. b) equal molecules of C and H by mass
    3. c) twice the mass of oxygen atoms compared to nitrogen atoms
    4. d) twice the mass of nitrogen atoms compared to hydrogen atoms
  6. Which of the following is the general formula for saturated hydrocarbons?
    1. a) CnH2n+2
    2. b) CnH2n - 2
    3. c) CnH2n+1
    4. d) CnH2n -1
  7. A particle moves with uniform acceleration along a straight line from rest. The percentage increase in displacement during sixth second compared to that in fifth second is abut
    1. a) 11%
    2. b) 22%
    3. c) 33%
    4. d) 44%
  8. If two miscible liquids of same volume but different densities P1 and P2 are mixed , then the density of the mixture is given by
    1. a)
    2. b)
    3. c)
  9. The position vector of a particle is
    "Equation"
    Then the instatnaneous velocity v and acceleration a respectively lie
    1. a) on xyplane and along z-direction
    2. b) on yz-plane and along x-direction
    3. c) on yz-plane and along y-direction
    4. d) on xy-plane and along x-direction
  10. Two persons are holding a rope of negligible mass horizontally. A 20 kg mass is attached to the rope at the midpoint; as a result the rope deviates from the horizontal direction. The tension required to completely straighten the rope is (g = 10/ms2)
    1. a) 200 N
    2. b) 20 N
    3. c) 10 N
    4. d) Infinitely large
  11. Which one of the following does not convert electrical energy into light energy?
    1. a) A candle
    2. b) A light emitting diode
    3. c) A laser
    4. d) A television set
  12. Which of the following is/are the main absorbing organ/organs of plants?
    1. a) Root only
    2. b) Leaf only
    3. c) Root and leaf only
    4. d) Root , leaf and bark
  13. Which of the following is not a primary function of a green leaf?
    1. a) Manufacture of food
    2. b) Interchange of gases
    3. c) Evaporation of water
    4. d) Conduction of food and water
  14. Which one of the following denotes a 'true' fruit?
    1. a) When only the thalamus of the flower grows and develops into a fruit
    2. b) When only the receptacle of the flower develops into a fruit
    3. c) When fruit originates only from the calyx of a flower
    4. d) When only the ovary of the flower grows into a fruit
  15. In which one of the following physiological processes, excess water escapes in the form of droplets from a plant?
    1. a) Transpiration
    2. b) Guttation
    3. c) Secretion
    4. d) Excretion
  16. If the xylem of a plant is mechanically blocked, which of the following functions of the plant will be affected?
    1. a) Transport of water only
    2. b) Transport of water and solutes
    3. c) Transport of solutes only
    4. d) Transport of gases
  17. Which one of the following agents does not contribute to propagation of plants through seed dispersal?
    1. a) Wind
    2. b) Fungus
    3. c) Animal
    4. d) Water
  18. The visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is
    1. a) infrared
    2. b) radiowave
    3. c) microwave
    4. d) light
  19. Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of States in terms of their population density as per Census 2011?
    1. a) Arunachal Prdesh - Sikkim - Mizoram - Himachal Pradesh
    2. b) Arunachal Pradesh - Mizoram - Sikkim - Himachal Pradesh
    3. c) Mioram - Arunachal Pradesh - Himachal Pradesh - Sikkim
    4. d) Arunachal Pradesh - Himachal Pradesh - Sikkim - Mizoram
  20. The rate of population growth during 2001 - 2011 decade declined over the previous decade (1991 - 2001) in all of the following States , except
    1. a) Tamil Nadu
    2. b) Kerala
    3. c) Goa
    4. d) Andhra Pradesh
  21. Which one of the following statements with regard to growth of coral reefs is not correct?
    1. a) Coral can grow abundantly in fresh water
    2. b) It requires warm water between 23oC - 25oC
    3. c) it requires shallow saltwater, not deeper than 50 metres
    4. d) It requires plenty of sunlight to aid photosynthesis
  22. As per Census 2011, the concentration of Scheduled Caste population (going by percentage of Scheduled Caste population to total population of the State) is the highest in the State of
    1. a) Uttar Pradesh
    2. b) Himachal Pradesh
    3. c) Punjab
    4. d) West Bengal
  23. Which one of the following States has more then two major ports ?
    1. a) Maharashtra
    2. b) West Bengal
    3. c) Odisha
    4. d) Tamil Nadu
  24. The equivalent weight of Ba(OH)2 is (given , atomic weight of Ba is 137.3)
    1. a) 85.7
    2. b) 137.3
    3. c) 154.3
    4. d) 171.3
  25. Which one of the following nitrogen oxides has the highest oxidation state of nitrogen?
    1. a) NO
    2. b) NO2
    3. c) N2O
    4. d) N2O5
  26. Which one of the following is not true for the form of carbon known as diamond?
    1. a) It is harder than graphite
    2. b) It contains the same percentage of carbon as graphite
    3. c) It is better electric conductor than graphite
    4. d) It has different carbon to carbon distance in all directions
  27. In which one of the following reactions the maximum quantity of H2 gas is produced by the decomposition of 1 g of compound by H2O/O2?
    1. a) CH4 + H2O ® CO + 3H2
    2. b) CO + H2O ® CO2 + H2
    3. c) CH4 + 1/2 O2 ® CO + 2H2
    4. d) C12H24 + 6O2 ® 12CO + 12H2
  28. When a convex lens produces a real image of an object, the minimum distance between the object and image is equal to
    1. a) focal length of the convex lens
    2. b) twice the focal length of the convex lens
    3. c) four times the focal length of the convex lens
    4. d) one half of the focal length of the convex lens
  29. The direction of magnetic field at any location on the earth's surface is commonly specified in terms of
    1. a) field declination
    2. b) field inclination
    3. c) both field declination and field inclination
    4. d) horizontal component of the field
  30. A circuit has a fuse having a rating of 5A. What is the maximum number of 100W-220V bulbs that can be safely connected in parallel in the circuit?
    1. a) 20
    2. b) 15
    3. c) 11
    4. d) 10
  31. Which one of the following can extinguish fire more quickly?
    1. a) Cold water
    2. b) Boiling water
    3. c) Hot water
    4. d) Ice
  32. In which of the following , heat loss is primarliy not due to convection?
    1. a) Boiling water
    2. b) Land and sea breeze
    3. c) Circulation of air around blast furnace
    4. d) Heating of glass surface of a bulb due to current in filament
  33. Which one of the following features is an indication for modification of stem of a plant?
    1. a) Presence of 'eye' on potato
    2. b) 'Scale' found in onion
    3. c) 'Tendril' found in pea
    4. d) 'Hair' present in carrot
  34. Which of the following roles is/are played by epididymis , vas deferens, seminal vesicles and prostate in male reproductive system of human?
    1. a) Spermatogenesis and maturation of sperms
    2. b) Maturation and motility of sperms
    3. c) Spermatogenesis and motility of sperms
    4. d) Motility of sperms only
  35. Which one of the following is the special type of milk produced by a lactating mother, essential for the development of immune response of newborn baby in human?
    1. a) Breast milk produced after a month of childbirth
    2. b) Transitional milk
    3. c) Colostrum
    4. d) Mineralized milk
  36. Which one of the following statements explains higher mutation rate and faster evolution found in RNA virus?
    1. a) RNA is relatively unstable compared to DNA
    2. b) Virus can multiply only within the living cell of a host
    3. c) Metabolic processes are absent in virus
    4. d) Virus can remain latent for a long period
  37. Which one of the following is the correct ascending seuence of States with regard to percentage of urban population (2011)?
    1. a) Tamil Nadu - Mizoram - Goa - Maharashtra
    2. b) Goa - Mizoram - Maharashtra - Kerala
    3. c) Maharashtra - Kerala - Mizoram - Goa
    4. d) Mizoram - Goa - Maharashtra - Kerala
  38. Which one of the following places does not fall on leeward slope?
    1. a) Pune
    2. b) Bengaluru
    3. c) Leh
    4. d) Mangaluru
  39. South Arcot and Ramanathapuram receive over 50 percent of their annual rainfall which one of the following?
    1. a) South west monsson
    2. b) North east monsoon
    3. c) Bay of Bengal branch of summer monsoon
    4. d) Western disturbances
  40. The Eight Degree Channel separates which of the following?
    1. a) India from Sri Lanka
    2. b) Lakshadweep from Maldives
    3. c) Andaman from Nicobar Islands
    4. d) Indira Point from Indonesia
  41. Match List - I with List -II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
    List I List -II
    (Classification of Town) (Example)
    A. Industrial Town 1. Vishakhapatnam
    B. Transport Town 2. Bhilai
    C. Mining Town 3. Singrauli
    D. Garrison Cantonment Town 4. Ambala
    Code :
    A B C D
    1. a) 2 1 3 4
    2. b) 2 3 1 4
    3. c) 4 3 1 2
    4. d) 4 1 3 2
  42. Which of the following statements with regards to the land use situation in India is/are correct?
    1. There has been a tremendous decline in area under forest in recent years
    2. The rate of increase in land use in recent years is the highest in case of area under non-agricultural use.
    3. Land use such as barren and wasteland , area under pastures and tree crops have experienced decline in recent years.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below
    1. a) 1 only
    2. b) 1 and 2 only
    3. c) 2 and 3 only
    4. d) 1, 2 and 3
  43. Which one of the following was not a part of the strategies followed by the Government of India to increase food grain production in India immediately after independence?
    1. a) Intensification of cropping over already cultivated land
    2. b) Increasing cultivable area by bringing cultivable and follow land under plough
    3. c) Using high-yielding varieties (HYV) seeds
    4. d) Switching over from cash crops to food crops
  44. Which one of the following is a west following river?
    1. a) Mahanadi
    2. b) Godavari
    3. c) Krishna
    4. d) Narmada
  45. Khasi language is included in
    1. a) Munda branch of Austro-Asiatic sub-family
    2. b) Mon-Khmer branch of Austro Asiatic sub-family
    3. c) North Assam branch of Sin-Tibetan family
    4. d) Assam - Myanmari branch of Sino-Tibetan family
  46. The headquarters of Metro Railway Zone is located in
    1. a) New Delhi
    2. b) Mumbai
    3. c) Kolkata
    4. d) Chennai
  47. Which one among the following is not a tributary of river Luni ?
    1. a) Khari
    2. b) Sukri
    3. c) Jawai
    4. d) Banas
  48. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
    List - I List - II
    (Major Dam) (State)
    A. Cheruthoni Dam 1. Madhya Pradesh
    B. Indira Sagar Dam 2. Tamil Nadu
    C. Krishnarajasagar Dam 3. Karnataka
    D. Mettur Dam 4. Kerala
    Code :
    A B C D
    1. a) 2 1 3 4
    2. b) 2 3 1 4
    3. c) 4 3 1 2
    4. c) 4 1 3 2
  49. Which one among the following Union Territories of India shares the shortest length of National Highways?
    1. a) Chandigarh
    2. b) Delhi
    3. c) Daman and Diu
    4. d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
  50. Which one among the following passes links Lhasa with Ladakh?
    1. a) Lanak La
    2. b) Burzil
    3. c) Babusar
    4. d) Khyber
  51. According to the latest Reserve Bank of India study on State finances, capital spending is maximum on
    1. a) rural development
    2. b) water supply and sanitaiton
    3. c) urban development
    4. d) education
  52. According to the World Bank's Doing Business Report , 2018, India's ranking has improved in 2018 as compared to 2017 in which of the following areas?
    1. Paying taxes
    2. Resolving insovency
    3. Starting a business
    4. Getting electricity
    Select the correct answer using the code given below
    1. a) 1 only
    2. b) 1 and 2 only
    3. c) 1, 2 and 3
    4. d) 2, 3 and 4
  53. The Fourteenth Finance Commission assigned different weight to the following parameters for distribution of tax proceeds to the States :
    1. Income distance
    2. Population
    3. Demographic changes
    4. Area
    Arrange the aforesaid parameters in descending order in terms of their weights
    1. a) 1-2-3-4
    2. b) 1-2-4-3
    3. c) 1-3-2-4
    4. d) 4-3-2-1
  54. The natural rate of unemployment hypothesis was advocated by
    1. a) Milton Friedman
    2. b) A.W.Philips
    3. c) J.M.Keynes
    4. d) R.G.Lipsey
  55. The Harappan site at Kot Diji is close to which one of the following major sites of that civilization?
    1. a) Harapp
    2. b) Mohenjo-daro
    3. c) Lothal
    4. d) Kalibangan
  56. The story Gandatindu Jataka was written in which language?
    1. a) Sanskrit
    2. b) Telugu
    3. c) Tamil
    4. d) Pali
  57. According to the Tamil Sangam texts, who among the following were the large landowners?
    1. a) Gahapatis
    2. b) Uzhavars
    3. c) Adimais
    4. d) Vellalars
  58. According to the Mansumriti , women can acquire wealth through whichof the following means?
    1. a) Purchase
    2. b) Investment
    3. c) Token of affection
    4. d) Inheritance
  59. The dailogue on Varna between king Avantiputta and Kachchana, a disciple of Buddha, appears in which one of the following Buddhist texts?
    1. a) Majjhima Nikaya
    2. b) Samyutta Nikaya
    3. c) Anguttara Nikaya
    4. d) Ambattha Sutta
  60. In the first century AD, which among the following was not a major item of Indian exports to Rome?
    1. a) Pepper
    2. b) Spikenard
    3. c) Tortoiseshell
    4. d) Nutmeg
  61. Which of the following statements relating to the Government of India Act, 1858 is/are correct?
    1. The British Crown assumed soverignty over India from the East India Company.
    2. The British Parliament enacted the first statue for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British.
    3. This Act was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation inthe administration of the country.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    1. a) 1 and 2 only
    2. b) 2 only
    3. c) 1,2 and 3
    4. d) 1 and 3 only
  62. Which of the following statements relating to the Indian Councils Act, 1861 is/are correct ?
    1. The Act introduced a grain of popular element by including non-official members in the Governor General's Executive Council.
    2. The members were nominated and their functions were confined exclusively to consideration of legislative proposals placed before it by the Governor - General
    3. The Governor - General did not have effective legislative power.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    1. a) 1 and 2 only
    2. b) 2 and 3 only
    3. c) 1, 2 and 3
    4. d) 1 only
  63. Which of the following statements relating to the historic Objectives Resolution, which was adopted by the Constituent Assembly, is/are correct?
    1. The Objectives Resolution inspired the shaping of the Constitution through all its subsequent stages.
    2. It was not just a resolution, but a declaration, a firm resolve and a pledge.
    3. It provided the underlying philosophy of our Constitution.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. a) 1 and 2 only
    2. b) 1 only
    3. c) 1, 2 and 3
    4. d) 2 and 3 only
  64. The 2+2 Bilateral Dialogue was held in September 2018 between
    1. a) External affairs and Defence Ministers of India with their US counterparts
    2. b) Finance and Defence Ministers of India with their Russian counterparts
    3. c) Home and Defence Ministers of India and their counterparts in Pakistan
    4. d) External Affaris and Defence Ministers of India with their counterparts in Pakistan
  65. Who is the Chairman of the Defence Planning Committee set up in April 2018?
    1. a) The Prime Minister
    2. b) The National Security Advisor
    3. c) The Defence Minister
    4. d) The Chief of the Army Staff
  66. Tejas' is the name of which one of the following?
    1. a) Main battle tank
    2. b) Nuclear submarine
    3. c) Light combat aircraft
    4. d)Aircraft carrier
  67. As per the extant policy, Foreign Direct Investment is permitted in the defence sector under the automatic route up to which one of the following limits?
    1. a) 26 percent
    2. b) 74 percent
    3. c) 51 percent
    4. d) 49 percent
  68. The policy on strategic partnerships in defence was approved by the Ministry of Defence in May 2017. Which of the following is not among the four segments identified by the Ministry for acquisition through the strategic partnership route?
    1. a) Artillery guns
    2. b) Fighter aircraft and helicopters
    3. c) Submarines
    4. d) Armoured fighting vehicles and main battle tanks
  69. The acronym 'CAATSA' refers to a piece of legislation enacted by which one of the following countries?
    1. a) United Kingdom
    2. b) United States of America
    3. c) Rusia
    4. d) India
  70. Who among the following is the Governor of the 'Task Force' set up in November 2017 by the Government of India to review the Income tax Act and draft a new direct tax law?
    1. a) Girish Ahuja
    2. b) Mukesh Patel
    3. c) Arbind Modi
    4. d) Mansi Kedia
  71. With regard to the cabinet decision in July 2018, the percentage increase in Minimum Support Price (MSP) is maximum in which one of the following crops?
    1. a) Jowar (Hybrid)
    2. b) Bajra
    3. c) Maize
    4. d) Soya bean
  72. Directions : The following four (4) items consist of two statements , Statement I and Statement II. Examine thse two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below .
    Code :
    Statement I :
    The overall fiscal deficit of the States in India during 2017-2018 stayed above the FRBM threshold level of 3 percent for the third successive year.
    Statement II :
    Special Category States had run up a higher level of fiscal deficit in 2017-2018 compared to 2016-2017
    1. a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanationof Statement I
    2. b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
    3. c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  73. Statement I : There has been a sharp decline in savings rate in Indian economy between 2007 - 2008 to 2015-2016.
    Statement II : There has been a fall in household and public savings.
    1. a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanationof Statement I
    2. b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
    3. c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  74. Statement I : Private Investments in research have severely lagged public investments in India
    Statement II :
    Statement II :
    Universities play a relatively small rule in the research activities of the country.
    1. a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanationof Statement I
    2. b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
    3. c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  75. Statement I :
    Agriculture in India still accounts for a substantial share in total employment.
    Statement II :
    There has been no decline in voltality of agriculture growth in India.
    1. a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanationof Statement I
    2. b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
    3. c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  76. Who among the following European travellers never returned to Europe and settled down in India?
    1. a) Duarte Barbosa
    2. b) Manucci
    3. c) Tavernier
    4. d) Bernier
  77. The class of Amar Nayakas in Vijayanagara is a reference to which of the following?
    1. a) Village Chieftains
    2. b) Senior Civil Servants
    3. c) Tributary Chiefs
    4. d) Military Commanders
  78. The important source for Akbar's reign, Tarikh-i-Akbari was written by which one of the following Persian language scholars?
    1. a) Arif Qandahari
    2. b) Bayazid Bayat
    3. c) Abdul Qadir Badauni
    4. d) Nizamuddin Ahmad
  79. The aristocrat Muqarrab Khan was a great favourite of which Mughal Emperor?
    1. a) Akbar
    2. b) Jahangir
    3. c) Farrukhsiyar
    4. d) Shah Alam
  80. Who was the first Nawab Wazir of Awadh in the 18th century?
    1. a) Nawab Safdarjung
    2. b) Nawab Saadat Ali Khan
    3. c) Nawab - Shuja-ud-Daula
    4. d) Nawab Saadat Khan
  81. According to the French traveller Tavernier, the majority of houses in Varanasi during the 17th century were made of
    1. a) brick and mud
    2. b) stone and thatch
    3. c) wood and stone
    4. d) brick and stone
  82. Which of the following statements relating to the duties of the Governor is/are correct?
    1. The duties of the Governor as constitutional Head of the State do not become the subject matter of questions or debate in the Parliament.
    2. Where the Governor takes a decision independently of his Council of Ministers or where he acts as the Chief Executive of the State under Presidents rule, his actions are subject to scrutiny by the Parliament
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. a) 1 only
    2. b) 2 only
    3. c) Both 1 and 2
    4. d) Neither 1 nor 2
  83. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the special provision with respect to the State of Assam?
    1. a) Article 371 A
    2. b) Article 371B
    3. c) Article 371C
    4. d) Article 371 D
  84. Provisions of which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir?
    1. a) Article 238
    2. b) Article 370
    3. c) Article 371
    4. d) Article 371 G
  85. Which one of the following Schedules to the Constitution of India provides for setting up of Autonomous District Councils?
    1. a) Third Schedule
    2. b) Fourth Schedule
    3. c) Fifth Schedule
    4. d) Sixth Schedule
  86. In which one of the following States was 'DEFEXPO 2018' held in April 2018?
    1. a) Goa
    2. b) Karnataka
    3. c) Tamil Nadu
    4. d) Andhra Pradesh
  87. The two defence industrial corridors announced by the Finance Minister in his 2018 Budget speech are coming up in which of the following States?
    1. a) Odisha and West Bengal
    2. b) Punjab and Haryana
    3. c) Gujarat and Maharashtra
    4. d) Uttar Pradesh and Tamilnadu
  88. What is India's first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC) called?
    1. a) Vikrant
    2. b) Virat
    3. c) Vaibhav
    4. d) Varaha
  89. Which one of the following manufacturers is engaged in upgradation of the Swedish 155 - mm Bofors Howitzer under the project 'Dhanush'?
    1. a) Bharat Electronics Limited
    2. b) Ordnance Factory Board
    3. c) Bharat Dynamics Limited
    4. d) Mishra Dhatu Nigam
  90. Which of the following is the official mascot of Tokyo 2020 Olympic Games?
    1. a) Soohorang
    2. b) Viniclus de Mornes
    3. c) The Hare, the Polar Bear and the Leopard
    4. d) Miraitowa
  91. Mission Satyanishtha' , a programme on ethics in public governance , was launched recently by the
    1. a) Indian Railways
    2. b) Central Bureau of Investigation
    3. c) Supreme Court
    4. d) Enforcement Dicectorate
  92. The College of Fort William was established by which one of the following Governor Generals?
    1. a) Warren Hastings
    2. b) Lord Cornwallis
    3. c) Richard Wellesley
    4. d) William Bentinck
  93. The Economic historian , who was used the data collected by Buchanan- Hamilton to support the thesis of deindustrialization in the 19th century India , is
    1. a) Tirthankar Roy
    2. b) Amiya Kumar Bagchi
    3. c) Sabyasachi Bhattacharya
    4. d) Irfan Habib
  94. Tea growing in India in the 19th century was made possible by
    1. a) Joseph Banks
    2. b) James Cook
    3. c) Robert Fortune
    4. d) Robert Owen
  95. Subhas Chandra Bose started the 'Azad Hind Radio' in which of the following countries?
    1. a) Japan
    2. b) Austria
    3. c) Germany
    4. d) Malaysia
  96. Which political party formally accepted the Cabiner Mission Plan on 6th June , 1946, which had rejected the demand for a sovereign Pakistan?
    1. a) The Hindu Mahasabha
    2. b) The Congress
    3. c) The Muslim League
    4. d) The Unionist Party
  97. The elected President of the All India Kisan Sabha, which met in Vijayawada (1944) was
    1. a) Sahajananda Saraswati
    2. b) Vinoba Bhave
    3. c) Achyut Rao Patwardhan
    4. d) Narendra Dev
  98. Which one of the following regarding the tenure of the elected members of the Autonomous District Council is correct?
    1. a) Fiver years from the date of election
    2. b) Five years from the date appointed for the first meeting of the Council after the election.
    3. c) Six years from the date of administration of Oath
    4. d) Six years from the date of election
  99. Who among the following shall cause the accounts of the Autonomous District and Regional Council Funds to be audited?
    1. a) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
    2. b) The Chartered Accountant empanelled by the Government of India
    3. c) The State Government Auditors
    4. d) Any Chartered Accountant
  100. Who has the power of annulment of suspension of Acts and Resolutions of the Autonomous District and Regional Councils?
    1. a) The Governor
    2. b) The President
    3. c) The Chief Minister of the State
    4. d) The Prime Minister
  101. The audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to
    1. a) The President
    2. b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    3. c) The Prime Minister
    4. d) The Vice President
  102. Which of the following is not related to the powers of the Governor?
    1. a) Diplomatic and military powers
    2. b) Power to appoint Advocate General
    3. c) Summoning, Proroguing and dissolving State Legislature
    4. d) Power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishments
  103. Which of the following regarding the procedure and conduct of business in the Parliament is not correct?
    1. a) To discuss State matters
    2. b) To discuss issues of the use of police force in suppressing the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe communities
    3. c) To discuss issues in dealing with violent disturbances in an Undertaking under the control of the Union Government
    4. d) To discuss issues for putting down the demands of the industrial labour
  104. Which of the following is not under the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India?
    1. a) Superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electrol rolls
    2. b) Conduct of elections to the Parliament and to Legislature of each State
    3. c) Conduct of election to the office of the President and the Vice President
    4. d) Appointment of the Regional Commission in the performance of the functions conferred on the Commission
  105. Which one of the following criteria is not required to be qualified for appointment as Judge of the Supreme Court?
    1. a) At least five years as a judge of a High Court
    2. b) At least ten years as an Advocate of a High Court
    3. c) In the opinion of the President a distinguished Jurist
    4. d) At least twenty years as a Sub Judicial Magistrate
  106. Which one of the following is not among the duties of the Chief Minister?
    1. a) To communicate to the Governor of the State all decisions of the Councilo of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation
    2. b) To furnish information relating to the administration of the State and propsals for legislation as the Governor may call for
    3. c) To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State in the monthly report
    4. d) To submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but has not been considered by the Council , if the Governor so requires.
  107. Which one of the following is not considered a part of the Legislature of States?
    1. a) The Governor
    2. b) The Legislative Assembly
    3. c) The Legislative Coucil
    4. d) The Chief Minister
  108. Which one of the following regarding the ordinance - making power of the Governor is not correct?
    1. a) It is not discretionary power
    2. b) The Governor may withdraw the ordinance anytime
    3. c) The ordinance power can be exercised when the Legislature is not in session
    4. d) The aid and advice of ministers is not required for declaring the ordinance
  109. Which one of the following statements regarding the Universal Declaration of Human Rights is not correct?
    1. a) The UN General Assembly adopted the Human Rights Charter on 10th December, 1948
    2. b) Some of the provisions of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India are similar to the provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
    3. c) The Right to Property is not a part of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights
    4. d) India is a signatory to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
  110. Which one of the following statements regarding the Human Rights Council is not correct?
    1. a) It is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system made up of all members of the UN
    2. b) It is responsible for the promotion and protection of all human rights around the globe
    3. c) It replaced the former United Nations Commission on Human Rights.
    4. d) It is made up of 47 UN Member States which are elected by the UN General Assembly
  111. Ace athelete Neeraj Chopra is an accomplished player in
    1. a) Hammer throw
    2. b) Javelin throw
    3. c) Shot put throw
    4. d) Discuss throw
  112. According to the updated World Bank data for 2017, India is the sixth biggest economy of the world (in terms of GDP). Which one of the following is not ahed of India?
    1. a) Japan
    2. b) UK
    3. c) France
    4. d) Germany
  113. Which one of the following is correct about 'Aaykar Setu'?
    1. a) It is a mechanism for achieving excellence in public sector delivery related to GST
    2. b) With the use of a mobile app, it facilitates online payment of taxes
    3. c) It is communication strategy designed to collect information and build a database of tax defaulters
    4. d) It enables electronic filing and processing of import and export declaratoins
  114. SWAYAM is
    1. a) a network that aims to tap the talent pool of scientists and entrepreneurs towards global excellence
    2. b) a Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) initiatie on a national platform
    3. c) an empowerment scheme for advancing the participation of girls in education
    4. d) a scheme that supports differently abled children to pursue technical education
  115. Under the PRASAD Tourism Scheme, which one of the following has not been identified as a religious site for development?
    1. a) Ajmer (Rajasthan)
    2. b) Hardwar (Uttarkhand)
    3. c) Somnath (Gujarat)
    4. d) Velankanni (Tamil Nadu)
  116. Name the Indian cricketer who is not inducted to the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame (till July 20180
    1. a) Rahul Dravid
    2. b) Sunil Gavaskar
    3. c) Sachin Tendulkar
    4. d) Anil Kumble
  117. The Central Water Commission has recently entered into a collaborative agreement with which one of the following entities for flood forecasting?
    1. a) Skymet
    2. b) Google
    3. c) MetService
    4. d) Accu Weather
  118. The tagline 'Invaluable Treasures of Incredible India' is associated with the logo for
    1. a) Archeological Survey of India
    2. b) India Tourism Development Corporation
    3. c) Geological Survey of India
    4. d) Geographical Indications (GI) of India
  119. Who took over the 'Eka Movement' started by the Congress in Awadh during 1921 - 1922?
    1. a) Bhagwan Ahir
    2. b) Madari Pasi
    3. c) Baba Ramchandra
    4. d) Shah Naeem Ata
  120. Which organization was started at the Haridwar Kumbh Mela in 1915?
    1. a) Sanatan Dharma Sabha
    2. b) Dev Samaj
    3. c) Brahmin Sabha
    4. d) Hindu Mahasabha

CDS 2 Answer Key with Questions for Paper 3 (Elementary Mathematics)

Q. No Set A Set B Set C Set D
1     D  
2     B  
3     B  
4     C  
5        
6     D  
7     D  
8     C  
9        
10     C  
11     D  
12     B  
13        
14     A  
15     C  
16     B  
17     B  
18     C  
19     C  
20     C  
21     C  
22     A  
23     B  
24     B  
25     A  
26     B  
27     C  
28        
29     B  
30     D  
31     D  
32     A  
33     C  
34     B  
35        
36     C  
37     B  
38     B  
39     B  
40     A  
41     B  
42     B  
43     A  
44        
45     C  
46     C  
47     B  
48     C  
49     D  
50     B  
51     B  
52     D  
53     B  
54     B  
55     C  
56     D  
57     B  
58     B  
59     A  
60        
61     C  
62     B  
63     A  
64     B  
65     B  
66     A  
67     B  
68     B  
69     A  
70     B  
71        
72     B  
73     D  
74     D  
75        
76     B  
77        
78     B  
79     A  
80     B  
81     C  
82     B  
83     D  
84     B  
85        
86     B  
87     A  
88     D  
89     B  
90     B  
91     C  
92     C  
93     C  
94     C  
95     D  
96        
97     C  
98     C  
99     B  
100     B  

Expected CDS 2 Cut Off 2018

The CDS Exam was held on Nov 18, 2018 and CDS aspirants appeared for various posts under CDS Exam such as IMA (100 vacancies), INA (45 vacancies), AFA (32 vacancies) and OTA (225 vacancies).

Course Cut off Marks CDS 1 - 2016 Cut off Marks CDS 2 - 2016 Cut off Marks CDS 1 - 2017 Cut off Marks CDS 2 - 2017 Cut off Marks CDS 1 - 2018 (Expected)
Cut off Marks CDS 2 - 2018 (Expected)
IMA 72 105 125 120 105 ± 3 100 ± 3
INA 63 90 118 111 95 ± 3 90 ± 3
AFA 123 135 114 135 118 ± 3 115 ± 3
OTA (Men) 68 72 82 86 90 ± 3 82 ± 3
OTA (Women) 68 72 82 86 90 ± 3 82 ± 3

About CDS 2 Answer Key 

NeoStencil in collaboration with its top partnered IAS coaching institutes in Delhi will prepare CDS 2 Answer Key and CDS 2 cut off. The Union Public Service Commission will be conducting CDS (Combined Defence Service) examination for recruitment into Defence Institutions on November 18. As always NeoStencil will be the first to announce the UPSC CDS Answer Key with explanations and sources as soon as the exam ceases, for the benefit of the candidates who would like to get a fair idea of how they performed and check their answers. CDS exam Answer Key will be helpful to assess your exam performance and check your eligibility for next level.

CDS 2 2 Answer Key includes answers to Question Papers with Score calculator along with their sources. UPSC CDS 2 Answer Key helps to determine CDS cut off 2018 based on a large number of students and experienced teachers from Delhi s top IAS coaching institutes. Register now on NeoStencil and download the CDS 2 Answer Key with detailed explanations and their sources.

The exam is being held to recruit for prestigious Defence Institutions namely, Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers Training Academy. The cut off will be decided by merit, based on GS, English and Mathematics (IMA, INA and AF (a), and GK and English for OTA of CDS Exam. Candidates who have appeared for CDS Exam can check the CDS 2018 Answer Key on NeoStencil.

Prepared by Top IAS Coachings in Delhi

NeoStencil offers Online IAS Classes through its unique LIVE Online platform for IAS/UPSC test preparation where you can access classrooms and test series program of the best teachers of India, from the comfort of your home. Students preparing for various Civil Services exam through NeoStencil and its associated institutes have secured 43 out of top 100 ranks and more than 500 total selections in the IAS Results in 2017. If you are interested in UPSC Online preparation from Top Institutes of IAS Coaching in Delhi, please feel free to check the multitude of courses we have for Live Online Classes for IAS and other state services. To read student testimonials, click here .


CDS Syllabus, Exam Pattern & Notification

CDS SYLLABUS

CDS EXAM PATTERN

Check Live Online Courses for IAS Preparation

View Popular Online Courses & Free Demos for UPSC Preparation by India's 25 Top IAS Institutes

Leave your comments below:

0 Comments




Your email address will not be published. Required Fields are marked*