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  • Download UPSC CAPF 2018 Answer Key & CAPF Cut Off

     

    We are the first to launch the most accurate and comprehensive CAPF Prelims 2018 Answer Key, conducted by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). CAPF GS Paper Answer Key (all sets) with detailed solutions and sources are now LIVE!

    CAPF Answer Key – GS Paper 1 (All Sets)

    Q. NoSET ASET BSET CSET D
    1C
    2A
    3B
    4B
    5A
    6C
    7B
    8B
    9A
    10A
    11B
    12C
    13C
    14A
    15C
    16B
    17A
    18B
    19
    20C
    21D
    22C
    23C
    24C
    25A
    26D
    27A
    28D
    29C
    30D
    31A
    32C
    33D
    34D
    35C
    36C
    37A
    38D
    39B
    40B
    41
    42D
    43B
    44A
    45A
    46C
    47B
    48D
    49C
    50A
    51B
    52A
    53B
    54B
    55D
    56C
    57A
    58A
    59D
    60A
    61B
    62A
    63B
    64C
    65D
    66A
    67C
    68C
    69B
    70C
    71B
    72B
    73C
    74B
    75B
    76C
    77B
    78C
    79C
    80A
    81B
    82A
    83B
    84
    85C
    86A
    87A
    88C
    89B
    90A
    91B
    92C
    93C
    94B
    95B
    96C
    97B
    98C
    99C
    100D
    101C
    102D
    103C
    104B
    105C
    106B
    107A
    108B
    109D
    110B
    111D
    112C
    113C
    114B
    115C
    116B
    117D
    118C
    119B
    120C
    121A
    122B
    123C
    124D
    125B

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    CAPF 2018 Question and Answers

     

    1. The optical phenomenon that is responsible for the propagation of light signal through an optical fibres is
      1. (a) interference
      2. (b) scattering
      3. (c) total internal reflection
      4. (d) refraction
    2. Which of the following statements about optical microscope is/are correct?
      1. Both the eyepiece and objective of a microscope are convex lenses.
      2. The magnification of a microscope increases with increase in focal length of the objective.
      3. The magnification of a microscope depends upon the length of the microcscope tube
      4. The eyepiece of a microscope is concave lens.
      Select the correct answer using the code given below.
      1. (a) 1 and 3
      2. (b) 3 only
      3. (c) 3 and 4
      4. (d) 1,2 and 4
    3. Which one of the following gemstones contains beryllium metal?
      1. (a) Topaz
      2. (b) Emerald
      3. (c) Ruby
      4. (d) Blue sapphire
    4. Lowering the atmospheric pressure on a liquid
      1. (a) increases the boiling point of the liquid
      2. (b) lowers the boiling point of the liquid
      3. (c) does not affect the boiling point of the liquid
      4. (d) increases the time required for it to boil
    5. The number of angular and radical nodes for 4d orbital is respectively
      1. (a) 2 and 1
      2. (b) 1 and 2
      3. (c) 3 and 1
      4. (d) 4 and 0
    6. Which one of the following statements about proteins in mammalian cells in correct?
      1. (a) Proteins in mammalian cells are synthesized in cell membrane.
      2. (b) Proteins in mammalian cells are not synthesized in cell membrane but directly absorbed from food.
      3. (c) Proteins in mammalian cells are synthesized in rough endoplasmic reticulum.
      4. (d) Proteins in mammalian cells are synthesized in Golgi apparatus.
    7. Which one of the following statements about transport mechanism in plants is correct?
      1. (a) Diffusion of ions and small molecules across cell membrane requires energy
      2. (b) Active transport of ions and small molecules across cell membrane against concentration gradient requires energy.
      3. (c) Cells conserve energy and no energy is required for transport of ions and small molecules against concentration gradient.
      4. (d) Cells do not transport ions across their membrane as these are charged molecules.
    8. If the amplitude of oscillation of a simple pendulum is very small, then its time period of oscillation.
      1. Depends on the length of the pendulum, L
      2. depends on the acceleration due to gravity, g
      3. depends upon the mass of the bob of the pendulum, m
      4. does not depend upon the amplitude of the pendulum, A
      Select the correct answer using the code given below.
      1. (a) 1 , 2 and 3
      2. (b) 1,2 and 4
      3. (c) 2,3 and 4
      4. (d) 1 and 4 only
    9. The term LASER stands for
      1. (a) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
      2. (b) Light Amplificaiton by Spontaneous Emission of Radiation
      3. (c) Light Amplificaiton by Stimulated Emission of Rays
      4. (d) Light Amplification by Stimulated Energy of Radiation
    10. Which of the following statements about carboxylic acids is / are correct?
      1. Simple aliphatic carboxylic acids are soluble in water.
      2. Higher carboxylic acids are practically insoluble in water.
      3. The acidity of a carboxylic acid depends on the number of carbon atoms present in the hydrocarbon chain.
      Select the correct answer using the code given below.
      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c) 1 only
      4. (d) 1,2 and 3
    11. Match List-I with List -II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
      List – I (Compound) List – II (Type of Polymer)
      A. Melamine 1. Linear
      B. Polyvinyl chloride 2. Condensation
      C. Terylene 3. Natural
      D. Cellulose 4. Cross-lined
      Code :
      A B C D
      1. (a) 3 2 1 4
      2. (b) 4 1 2 3
      3. (c) 3 1 2 4
      4. (d) 4 2 1 3
    12. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which one of the following countries?
      1. (a) North Sudan
      2. (b) Chad
      3. (c) Mali
      4. (d) Yemen
    13. Gersoppa Falls is formed by which one of the following rivers?
      1. (a) Lohit
      2. (b) Tungabhadra
      3. (c) Sharavati
      4. (d) Krishna
    14. Which one of the following process is not a part of long wave radiation?
      1. (a) Conduction
      2. (b) Scattering
      3. (c) Convection
      4. (d) Radiation
    15. In mid latitude regions, the diurnal variation in weather is due
      1. (a) raising air/convection
      2. (b) sinking air/ conduction
      3. (c) advection
      4. (d) Radiation
    16. Springs are common in which of the following areas?
      1. Well jointed rocks
      2. Arid areas with underlying rocks
      3. Karst topography
      4. Tilted strata
      Select the correct answer using the code given below.
      1. (a) 1 and 3 only
      2. (b) 1, 3 and 4
      3. (c) 2 and 4
      4. (d) 3 and 4 only
    17. Consider the following diagram:
      ** diagram
      An equilateral triangle is inscribed in a circle of radius 1 unit. The area of the shaded region, in square unit, is
      1. (a) (Pi/3) – (Sq.Rt 3/4)
      2. (b) (Pi/3) – (1/2)
      3. (c) (Pi/3) – (3/4)
      4. (d) (Pi/3) – 1
    18. In an examination , 53% students passed in Mathematics, 61% passed in Physics, 60% passed in Chemistry , 24% , 35% in Physics and Chemistry , 27% in Mathematics and Chemistry and 5% in none. The ratio of percentage passes Mathematics and Chemistry but not in Physics in relation to the percentage of passes in Physics and Chemistry but not in Mathematics is
      1. (a) 7 : 5
      2. (b) 5 : 7
      3. (c) 4 : 5
      4. (d) 5 : 4
    19. Consider the following diagrams :
      ** diagram
      Which one of the following is the missing number in the diagrams given above?
      1. (a) 1
      2. (b) 2
      3. (c) 3
      4. (d) 4
    20. Which one of the following is the area of a sector of a circle of radius 10 cm formed by an arc length of 15 cm?
      1. (a) 10 p cm2
      2. (b) 10 p cm2
      3. (c) 75 cm2
      4. (d) 150 cm2
    21. On Simplificaiton the product (x1 + y1) (x2 + y2) …. (x10 + y10) how many such terms are there which will have only single x and rest y/s?
      1. (a) 210
      2. (b) 10
      3. (c) 20
      4. (d) 1
    22. Which one of the following statements about blood elements is correct?
      1. (a) Red blood cells number is same as that of white blood cells and platelets
      2. (b) The number of white blood cells is more than red blood cells
      3. (c) The number of red blood cells is the highest
      4. (d) The number of red blood cells is lower than platelets.
    23. Which one of the following statements regarding muscle contraction and relaxation is correct?
      1. (a) it involves movement of Zn++ ion.
      2. (b) It involves Ca++ ion of blood
      3. (c) It involves release of Ca++ from sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) and pumping Ca++ back in SR.
      4. (d) It involves exchange of Na and K
    24. Which one of the following statements regarding digestion is correct?
      1. (a) Fat present in the food is digested by trypsin and chymotrypsin
      2. (b) Starch of food is digested by lipases
      3. (c) Fat of food is digested by lipases
      4. (d) Nucleic acid is digested by amylases
    25. Which one of the following statements is correct?
      1. (a) In photosynthesis by green plants, carbon dioxide is used for making carbohydrate
      2. (b) During photosynthesis, plants use oxygen for making carbohydrate.
      3. (c) The carbohydrate generated by plants comes from soil
      4. (d) The carbohydrate generated by plants comes from urea.
    26. Which one of the following statements regarding insulin hormone is correct?
      1. (a) Insulin is a protein hormone which is not produced in human body.
      2. (b) Insulin is a steroid hormone which is produced in human body.
      3. (c)Insulin is a cholesterol driven hormone given to human
      4. (d) Insulin is a protein hormone which is produced in human body
    27. Match List – I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
      List – I (Lime stone region) List – II (Country)
      A. Pennines 1. France
      B. Yucatan Peninsula 2. Jamaica
      C. Cockpit Country 3. Britain
      D. Causses 4. Mexico
      Code :
      A B C D
      1. (a) 3 4 2 1
      2. (b) 1 2 4 3
      3. (c)3 2 4 1
      4. (d) 1 4 2 3
    28. Which of the following cities experience the warm temperature Mediterranean climate?
      1. Cape Town
      2. Los Angeles
      3. Adelaide
      4. Santiago
      Select the correct answer using the code given below
      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 3 and 4 only
      3. (c)1,2 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1,2,3 and 4
    29. Which one of the following is the correct descending order of Indian States in terms of their density of population (as per 2011 Census)?
      1. (a) Bihar – Kerala – Uttar Pradesh – West Bengal
      2. (b) West Bengal – Bihar – Kerala – Uttar Pradesh
      3. (c)Bihar – West Bengal – Kerala – Uttar Pradesh
      4. (d) Kerala – West Bengal – Bihar – Uttar Pradesh
    30. Which one of the following major river basisn of India is the shortest in length and smallest in terms of catchment area?
      1. (a) Cauvery
      2. (b) Mahi
      3. (c)Penner
      4. (d) Sabarmati
    31. Arabian Sea records higher salinity than the Bay of Bengal because
      1. (a) Arabian Sea exhibits high rate of evaporation and low influx of fresh water
      2. (b) Arabian Sea has shallow water
      3. (c)Arabian Sea has more enclosed land
      4. (d) Arabian Sea receives more rainfall
    32. At what time between 2 o’clock and 3 o’clock will the hour and minute hands of a clock be 12 minutes division apart?
      1. (a) 12 minutes past 2 o’clock
      2. (b) 18 minutes past 2 o’clock
      3. (c)24 minutes past 2 o’clock
      4. (d) 30 minutes past 2 o’clock
    33. If the number
      22 x 54 x 108 x 610 x 1512 x 814 x 2016 x 1018 x 2520
      ** equation
      is divisible by 10n, then which one of the following is the maximum value of n?
      1. (a) 78
      2. (b) 85
      3. (c)89
      4. (d) 98
    34. Suppose a, b, c, d and e are five consecutive odd numbers in ascending order. Consider the following statements :
      1. Their average is (a+4).
      2. Their average is (b+2).
      3. Their average is (e-4)
      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 and 3 only
      3. (c)1 and 3 only
      4. (d) 1,2 and 3
    35. A king ordered to make a crown from 8 kg of gold and 2kg of silver. The goldsmith took away some amount of gold and replaced it by an equal amount of silver and the crown when made, weighed 10kg. The king knows that under water gold loses 1/20th of its weight, while silver loses 1/10th. When the crown was weighed under water, it was 9.25 kg. How much gold was stolen by the goldsmith?
      1. (a) 1 kg
      2. (b) 2 kg
      3. (c)3 kg
      4. (d) 4 kg
    36. If a cubical container of length, breadth and height each of 10 cm can contain exactly 1 litre of water, then a spherical container of radius 10.5 cm can contain
      1. (a) not more than 4 litres of water
      2. (b) more than 4 litres but less than 4.5 litres of water
      3. (c)more than 4.5 litres but less than 5 litres of water
      4. (d) more than 5 litres of water
    37. Which one of the following sites does not have coral reef formation?
      1. (a) Gulf of Cambay/ Khambhat
      2. (b) Gulf of Mannar
      3. (c)Lakshadweep
      4. (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    38. Which of the following statements are appropriate to Mangrove Sites?
      1. Mangrove plants require appropriate mix of saline water and fresh water.
      2. Mangrove plants require mudflats to enable it to grow and develop.
      3. Mangrove plants are found in the inter tidal zones of shelterd coasts.
      4. Mangrove vegetation has been reported in all the coastal States including Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
      Select the correct answer using the code given below.
      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 2,3 and 4 only
      3. (c)1,3 and 4 only
      4. (d) 1,2,3 and 4
    39. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
      1. (a) Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Uran Akademi : Fursatanj
      2. (b) National Flying Training Institute : Belgaum
      3. (c)National Insitute of Hydrology : Roorkee
      4. (d) National Water Academy (Head quarters) : Khadakwasla
    40. The lowest temperature is observed/ recorded in which one of the following layers of the atmosphere?
      1. (a) Stratosphere
      2. (b) Mesosphere
      3. (c)Thermosphere
      4. (d) Troposphere
    41. Which one of the following ocean currents is not a warm current?
      1. (a) North Pacific
      2. (b) Falkland
      3. (c)North Equatorial
      4. (d) Canary
    42. What is the largest value for n(natural number) such that 6n divides the product of the first 100 natural numbers?
      1. (a) 18
      2. (b) 33
      3. (c)44
      4. (d) 48
    43. The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 10 minutes past 3 is
      1. (a) 30o
      2. (b) 35o
      3. (c)37.5o
      4. (d) 40o
    44. An international conference is attended by 65 people . They all speak at least one of English, French and German language. Suppose 15 speak English and Frenceh, 13 speak English and German. 12 speak French and German and 5 speak all the three languages. A total of 30 people can speak German and 30 can speak French. What is the number of people who can speak only English?
      1. (a) 17
      2. (b) 20
      3. (c)22
      4. (d) 40
    45. Suppose 72 = m x n, where m and n are positive integers such that 1 < m < n. How many possible values of m are there?
      1. (a) 5
      2. (b) 6
      3. (c)10
      4. (d) 12
    46. Suppose x, y, z are three positive integers such that x ≤ y ≤ z and xyz = 72. Which one of the following values of S yields more than one solution to the equation x + y + z = S?
      1. (a) 13
      2. (b) 14
      3. (c)15
      4. (d) 16
    47. Which one of the following is the remainder when 1020 is divided by 7?
      1. (a) 1
      2. (b) 2
      3. (c)4
      4. (d) 6
    48. Which one of the following is anisotropic in nature?
      1. (a) Glass
      2. (b) Rubber
      3. (c)Plastic
      4. (d) Quartz
    49. Which one of the following is not a condenstation polymer?
      1. (a) Nylon
      2. (b) DNA
      3. (c)Polythene
      4. (d) Bakelite
    50. The tides whose height is 20 percent more than normal tide are called
      1. (a) spring tides
      2. (b) neap tides
      3. (c)apogean and perigean tides
      4. (d) daily and semidiurnal tides
    51. Which of the following statements about tropical cyclone are correct?
      1. It originates and develops over warm oceanic surface.
      2. Presence of Coriolis force is necessary for it.
      3. It occurs in middle latitudinal region.
      4. It develops ‘eye’ with calm and descending air condition.
      Select the correct answer using the code given below
      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 1,2 and 4
      3. (c) 3 and 4 only
      4. (d) 2,3 and 4
    52. Which of the following statements about biodiversity hot spots is/are correct?
      1. Biodiversity hot spots are identified by International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN).
      2. Biodiversity hot spots are defined according to their vegetation.
      3. In India, Eastern Ghats and Western Himalaya are the biodiversity hot spots.
      Select the correct answer using the code given below
      1. (a) 1 and 2 only
      2. (b) 3 only
      3. (c) 1,2 and 3
      4. (d) 1 only
    53. Which one of the following is not an igneous rock?
      1. (a) Granite
      2. (b) Gneiss
      3. (c) Pumice
      4. (d) Basalt
    54. Which one of the following rivers is west flowing?
      1. (a) Godavari
      2. (b) Periyar
      3. (c) Tungabhadra
      4. (d) Cauvery
    55. Consider an equilateral triangle ABC as given in the following diagram:
      ** diagram
      Two people start at the same time from points A and B with speeds 30 km per hour and 20 km per hour respectively, and move on the sides of the triangle in the clockwise direction. They meet each other for the first time at
      1. (a) Point C
      2. (b) A point between C and A
      3. (c) a point between A and B
      4. (d) point A
    56. The number of ways in which 3 boys and 2 girls be arranged in a queue, given that the 2 girls have to be next to each other, is
      1. (a) 12
      2. (b) 24
      3. (c) 48
      4. (d) 120
    57. The ratio of ages of a man and his son is 3 : 1 . After 15 years, the age ratio will be 2 : 1 . What is the age of the man?
      1. (a) 45 years
      2. (b) 40 years
      3. (c) 35 years
      4. (d) 30 years
    58. Two pillars are placed vertically 8 feet apart . The height difference of the two pillars is 6 feet. The two ends of a rope of length15 feet are tied to the tips of the two pillars. The portion of the length of the taller pillar that can be brought in contact with the rope without detaching the rope from the pillars is
      1. (a) less than 6 feet
      2. (b) more than 6 feet but less than 7 feet
      3. (c) more than 7 feet but less than 8 feet
      4. (d) more than 8 feet
    59. Directions : The following eight (8) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.
      Code :
      a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
      b) Both the statements are Individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statements I
      c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
      d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
      Statement I :
      Sound waves can travel through vacuum
      Statement II :
      Light is an electromagnetic wave and can travel through vacuum
      1. a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
      2. b) Both the statements are Individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statements I
      3. c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
      4. d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
    60. Statement I :
      A compass needle placed near a current carrying wire will get deflected.
      Statement II : A current carrying wire creates magnetic field around it.
      1. a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
      2. b) Both the statements are Individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statements I
      3. c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
      4. d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
    61. Statement 1:

      For early societies, historians retrieve Information about elite families mostly from Inscriptions.

      Statement II:

      Satavahana Inscriptions generally end with the term Putra, a Prakrit word meaning ‘non’
      1. a) Both statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
      2. b) Both statements are individually true and statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
      3. c) statement I is true & Statement II is false
      4. d) statement I is False & Statement II is true
    62. Statement I:
      In 1856, Nawab Wajid Ali Shah was dethroned and exiled to Calcutta on the plea that the region was being mingoverned.
      Statement II
      The Nawab was accused of being unable to control the rebellious chiefs and Taluqdars.
      1. a) Both statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
      2. b) Both statements are individually true and statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
      3. c) statement I is true & Statement II is false
      4. d) statement I is False & Statement II is true
    63. Statement I:
      Mahatma Gandhi went on a fast unto death against the Communal Award announced by the British Government.
      Statement II
      The Poona Pact resulted in a joint electorate with an enhanced number of Bcats reserved for Depressed Classes
      1. a) Both statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
      2. b) Both statements are individually true and statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
      3. c) statement I is true & Statement II is false
      4. d) statement I is False & Statement II is true
    64. Statement I :
      In India, a majority of the members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislatures State
      Statement II
      Members of the Rajya Sabha elected by the State Legislative Assemblies need to have their domicile in the concerned State
      1. a) Both statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
      2. b) Both statements are individually true and statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
      3. c) statement I is true & Statement II is false
      4. d) statement I is False & Statement II is true
    65. Statement 1
      The Permanent Settlement was rarely extended to any region beyond Bengal.
      Statement Il
      After 1810, the agricultural prices declined affecting adversely the income of the Bengal Zamindars.
      1. a) Both statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
      2. b) Both statements are individually true and statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
      3. c) statement I is true & Statement II is false
      4. d) statement I is False & Statement II is true
    66. Statement I:
      Towards the beginning of the 20th century a new hybrid architectural style developed which combined Indian with the European
      Statement II
      By integrating Indian and European styles in public architecture British wanted to prove that they were legitimate rulers of India.
      1. a) Both statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
      2. b) Both statements are individually true and statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
      3. c) statement I is true & Statement II is false
      4. d) statement I is False & Statement II is true
    67. Which of the following statements about town planning in British India in carly 19th century is/are correct?
      1. The funds for town improvement were also raised through public lotteries.
      2. The threats of epidemics gave an impetus to town planning in the carly decades of 19th century.
      Select the correct answer using the code given below.
      1. a) I only
      2. b) II only
      3. c) both I & II
      4. d) Neither I & II
    68. Which of the following statements about India’s Independence is/are correct?
      1. The formal transfer of power on 15th August, 1947 heralding India’s independence was announced by Lord Mountbatten.
      2. Mahatma Gandhi was not present at the festivities in the capital on 15th August, 1947.
      1. a) I only
      2. b) II only
      3. c) both I & II
      4. d) Neither I & II
    69. Who are the following in Congress represented the Socialist view?
      1. a) Rajendra Prasad
      2. b) Narendra Dev
      3. C) Maulana Azad
      4. d) Sardar patel
    70. Sikkim became assosicate of Indian union through
      1. a) the constitution (36 amendment) Act 1975
      2. a) the constitution (7th amendment) Act 1956
      3. a) the constitution (35 amendment) Act 1974
      4. a) the constitution (5th amendment) Act 1955
    71. Which of the following Judgements is associaoted with the primacy of the Chief Justice of India and the collegium of Judges in the appointment and transfer of the higher Judiciary
      1. (a) kesavananda bharati vs state of kerala
      2. (b) S P Gupta vs President of India
      3. (c) Menaka Gandhi vs Union of India
      4. (d) S R Bommai vs union of India
    72. Which one of the following constitutional amendments has enormously stenghthened the powers of the speakers / chairman of the houses of Parliament / state legilators?
      1. (a) 61 st amendment which reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 yrs
      2. (b) Anti-defection provisions of 52nd Amendment
      3. (c) Repealing of the provisions of 42nd amendment by 44th amedment
      4. (d) 73 rd amendment that conferred extensive powers on Panchayat Bodies
    73. Which one of the following committes of the parliament has no members from the Rajya Sabha?
      1. (a) Public Accounts Committee
      2. (b) Committe on Public Undertakings
      3. (c) Estimates Committee
      4. (d) DRSC on Finance
    74. Whcih one of the following states does not find a mention a Article 371 of the Indian Constitution?
      1. (a) Maharashtra
      2. (b) Madhya Pradesh
      3. (c) Gujarat
      4. (d) Karnataka
    75. In May 2018, Which one of the following banks was restricted to give fresh credits and new recruitment of staff by RBI?
      1. (a) Pubjab National Bank
      2. (b) Dena Bank
      3. (c) Central Bank of India
      4. (d) Bandan Bank
    76. When was Startup India hub operationalised to resolve querries and handhold start ups
      1. (a) 2015
      2. (b) 2016
      3. (c) 2017
      4. (d) 2018
    77. Who among the following is not associated with Governing council of NITI Aayog?
      1. (a) Prime Minister
      2. (b) President
      3. (c) Chief Ministers of State
      4. (d) CMs of Union Territories
    78. Whcih one of the following organisations is not merged into a new umberlla scheme ‘Rastriya Yuva Sashakitikaran Karyakram (RYSK)’?
      1. (a) Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan (NYKS)
      2. (b) Youth Hostels
      3. (c) National Services Scheme (NSS)
      4. (d) National Young Leaders Programme (NYLP)
    79. Whcih one of the following countries has recently formally notified its intension to withdraw from International Criminal Court
      1. (a) Namibia
      2. (b) Serbia
      3. (c) Philliphines
      4. (d) Norway
    80. Who among the following is elected as Prime Minister of China for the second term
      1. (a) Li Keqiang
      2. (b) Xi Jinping
      3. (c) Yang Xiaodu
      4. (d) Zhou Qiang
    81. Which of the following statements about the constitution of India is/are correct?
      1 The ‘Objective Resolution’ was moved by Sardar Vallbhbhi Patel
      2 Dr B.R Ambedkar served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee in his capacity as the Law Minister
      1. c
      2. (b) 2 Only
      3. (c) Both 1 And 2
      4. (d) Nither 1 nor 2
    82. Which of the following statement about the constitution of India is correct?
      1. (a) It was framed between December 1946 and December 1949
      2. (b) The draft of the constitution were discussed in public mettings.
      3. (c) It is the shortest document of a constitution of a World
      4. (d) It came fully into operation immediately after the drafting was completed in December 1949
    83. Who among the following has not written about the Partition in his work
      1. (a) Saddat Hasan Manto
      2. (b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhya
      3. (c) Bhisham Sahni
      4. (d) Narendranath Mitra
    84. Which of the following statement about Harrapa Cicilization is/are correct?
      1 There is a extraordinary uniformity in artefacts as evident in pottery, seals, bricks and weights.
      2 The late Harrapa Sites also maintained the same construction techniques as were used in Mature Harappa Sites
      1. (a) 1 Only
      2. (b) 2 Only
      3. (c) Both 1 And 2
      4. (d) Nither 1 nor 2
    85. Which of the following statements about Jainism is/are correct?
      1 The most important idea in Jainism is that the entire world in animated even stone, rock and water have life.
      2 Asceticism and Penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of Karma
      1. (a) 1 Only
      2. (b) 2 Only
      3. (c) Both 1 And 2
      4. (d) Nither 1 nor 2
    86. Which of the following pair of country with new names and old names are correctly matched?
      New Name : Old Name
      1. (a) Kingdom of eSwanti : Switzerland
      2. (b) Malawi: Rhodesia
      3. (c) Botswana: Nayasaland
      4. (d) Zimbabwe : Ceylon
    87. In India, Indus Dolphine one of the world’s rarest mammals, is mainly found in which of the following rivers ?
      1. (a) Ganga
      2. (b) Cauvery
      3. (c) Brahmaputra
      4. (d) Beas
    88. Which among the following cricketer has announced his retirement from International Cricket in May 2018 ?
      1. (a) Steve Smith
      2. (b) David warner
      3. (c) AB de Villiers
      4. (d) Shane Watson
    89. In a recent deal, a large stake of which one of the following e-commerce company was acquired by Walmart, an American multinational retailor
      1. (a) Shopclues
      2. (b) Flipkart
      3. (c) Yepme
      4. (d) Snapdeal
    90. Which of the following films was awarded best Feature Film in the National Film Award 2018 ?
      1. (a) Village Rockstar
      2. (b) Toilet : Ek prem katha
      3. (c) Newton
      4. (d) Mom
    91. Which one of the following groups belong to the same school of thoughts
      1. (a) J.J. Rousseau, M. Robespierre, N. Bonaparte, O. Cromwell
      2. (b) T. Jefferson, J Madison, G Washington, Abraham Lincoln
      3. (c) F. Engels, K Marx, M Bakunin, J.S. Mill
      4. (d) Georgi Plekhanov, Vera Zasulich, Alexandra Kolloniti, V.I. lenin
    92. The Provisions of PESA Act 1996
      1. (a) extends greater say to local tribal community over common resoursces
      2. (b) provides greater devolution of powers to scheduled caste
      3. (c) extends provisions of 73rd Amendment to Scheduled areas
      4. (d) brings Scheduled areas under the better control of local panchayats
    93. Over which of the following, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya sabha held Joint sittings to resolve their differences?
      1. Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1959
      2. The banking services commission (repeal) Bill, 1978
      3. The Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002
      4. The land Acquisation, Rehabilitation, and Resetllement act 2013

      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      1. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
      2. (b) 3 and 4
      3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
      4. (d) 2 and 4
    94. Which of the following commisions has not examined the issue of removal of the Governor of the state?
      1. (a) Sarkaria Commission
      2. (b) Thakkar Commission
      3. (c) Venkatachaliah Commission
      4. (d) Punchi Commission
    95. Which of the following is the correct combination of languages included in the 8th Schedule of the constitution of India?
      1. (a) Nepali, Konkani, Tulu and Santhali
      2. (b) Santhali, Urdu, Konkani and Maithuli
      3. (c) Santali, Konkani, Bhojpuri and Urdu
      4. (d) Dogri, Konkani, Bhojpuri and Urdu
    96. Recently AFSPA was completely removed from which of the following state?
      1. (a) Arunachal Pradesh
      2. (b) Nagaland
      3. (c) Meghalaya
      4. (d) Assam
    97. 15th Asia Media Summit was hosted in May 2018 in
      1. (a) Kolkata
      2. (b) New Delhi
      3. (c) Chennai
      4. (d) Bengaluru
    98. In India, cars bearing black number plate with yellow lettering are
      1. (a) vehicles belonging to foreign consolates
      2. (b) commercial vehicles such as trucks and taxis
      3. (c) commercial vehicles available on rent for self driving
      4. (d) electric vehicles
    99. In May 2018, who among the following was elected as Prime Minister of Malaysia at the age of 92
      1. (a) Siti Hasmah Ali
      2. (b) Najib Razak
      3. (c) Mahatir Mohemed
      4. (d) Anwar Ibhrahim
    100. In May 2018, bus services between which two places of India and Nepal was launched?
      1. (a) Nalanda and Lumbhini
      2. (b) Gaya and Kathmandu
      3. (c) Varanashi and Vaktapur
      4. (d) Ayodya and Janakpur
    101. In May 2018, which one of the following counteries has relocated its embassy in Israel from Tez to Jerusalem?
      1. (a) Iran
      2. (b) Germany
      3. (c) USA
      4. (d) Turkey
    102. Who among the following was Buddha’s foster mother?
      1. (a) Purna
      2. (b) Gajalakshmi
      3. (c) Maya
      4. (d) Mahapajapati Gotami
    103. Which of the following statements about Bodhisattas is/are correct? 1.They were perceived as deeply compassionate begins who accumulated merit through their efforts. 2.They made attempt to attain Nibbana. Select the correct answer using the code give below:
      1. (a) 1 only
      2. (b) 2 only
      3. (c) Both 1 and 2
      4. (d) Neither 1 and 2
    104. Depiction of the descent of the river Ganga from heaven in the form of relief sculpture on the rock is at
      1. (a) Ellora
      2. (b) Mahabalipuram
      3. (c) Sanchi
      4. (d) Amaravati
    105. Which one of the following statements relating to the power of the President of India to grant pardon is not correct?
      1. (a) The Presidenrt has the power to grant pardon where punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial.
      2. (b) The President can grant pardon in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of Death.
      3. (c) The Court’s power of judicial review is very limited in relation to the decision of the President on mercy petition.
      4. (d) The power to grant pardon by the President is the power that the sovereign never excercises against its own judicial mandate.
    106. Which one of the following is not a Characterstics feature of the Indian Independence Act, 1947?
      1. (a)The Dominion of India got the residuary territory of India, excluding the provinces of Sind, Baluchistan, West Punjab, East Bengal and NWFP.
      2. (b)The Act sought to lay down a Constitution by the Legislative will of the British Parliament.
      3. (c) The Act proposed to set up two independent Dominions.
      4. (d) The Constituent Assembly of each Dominion was to have unlimited power to frame and unlimited power to frame and adopt any Constitution.
    107. In National Income (NI) accounts, Personal Income (PI) is defined as
      1. (a) NI – undistributed profits – net interest payments made by households – corporate tax+ transfer payments to the households from the Government and firms.
      2. (b) NI – undistributed profits – corporate tax+ transfer payments to the households from the Government and firms.
      3. (c) undistributed profits – net interest payments made by households+ transfer payments to the households from the Government and firms.
      4. (d) undistributed profits – net interest payments made by households- corporate tax.
    108. The Reserve Bank of India defines narrow money as
      1. (a) CU(currency notes+coins) + DD(net demand deposits held by commercial banks)
      2. (b) CU + DD + saving deposits with post office savings banks
      3. (c) CU+ DD + net demand deposits held by commercial banks
      4. (d) CU+ DD + net demand deposits held by commercial banks + total deposits of posts offices.
    109. Suppose the price of mangoes increases from Rs20 per kg to Rs75 per kg. Due to this, the demand for mangoes declines from 100kg to 50kg. Which one of the following is the price elasticity of demand for mangoes?
      1. (a) 4
      2. (b) 3
      3. (c) 2
      4. (d) 1
    110. Multipliers will be lower with which one of the followings?
      1. (a) High marginal propensity to consume.
      2. (b) Low marginal propensity to consume.
      3. (c) High marginal propensity to invest
      4. (d) Low marginal propensity to save
    111. Which of the following is/are considered as India’s green initiatives)?
      1. National Green Highways Mission
      2. R & D for Clean Coal Technologies
      3. National Green Corridor Programme
      Select the correct answer using the code given below
      1. a) 1 only
      2. b) 1 & 2 only
      3. c) 2 & 3 only
      4. d) 1 2 & 3
    112. Which one of the following commercial centres declined after the mid-eighteenth century?
      1. a) Calcutta
      2. b) Madras
      3. c) Dhaka
      4. d) bombay
    113. Which of the following statements about Binodini Dasi, a pioneering figure in Bengali theatre in the late 19th early 20th century, is/are correct?
      1. She was one of the prime movers behind the setting up of the Star Theatre (1883) in Calcutta.
      2. She serialized her autobiography Amar Katha (My Story) between 1910 and 1913.
      Select the correct answer using the code given below.
      1. a) 1 only
      2. b) 2 only
      3. c) Both 1 & 2
      4. d) neither 1 & 2
    114. The National Green Tribunal, act up to deal with the expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection, was set up under the
      1. a) 12th five-year plan
      2. b) 11th five-year plan
      3. c) 10th five-year plan
      4. d) 9th five-year plan
    115. Which one of the following statements with regard to Panchayat io not
      1. a) Members of Panchayat are elected directly by the Gram Sabha
      2. b) The elections to Panchayats. conducted by the State Election Commission.
      3. c) The Central Government may by law authorize a Panchayat to levy taxes.
      4. d) Every Panchayat continues for five years from the date of convening of its first meeting
    116. Which one of the following concerns has found a place in both Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy?
      1. a) Safeguard of public property
      2. b) Protection and improvement of environment, forest & wildlfe.
      3. c) Respect for the rich heritage of our composite culture
      4. d) Promotion of cooperative societies
    117. Which one of the following is not a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
      1. a) Uniform Civil Code for all citizens
      2. b) Separation of Judiciary from Executive
      3. c) Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and standard of living
      4. d) Promotion of scientific temper, humanity and the spirit of inquiry and reform
    118. Who among the following was the author of Hind Swaraj?
      1. a) Aurobindo Ghose
      2. b) C.R. Dey
      3. c) Mahatma Gandhi
      4. d) Rajendra Prasad
    119. The Buddhist text Majjhima Nikaya is in
      1. a) Sanskrit
      2. b) Pali
      3. c) Prakrit
      4. d) Telugu
    120. The federal systems of India and the USA are different in all the following respects, excepts
      1. a) State’s representation in the Upper House
      2. b) dual citizenship
      3. c) dual system of Court
      4. d) s dual Government
    121. The power of the President of India to 12- refer a matter back to the Council of Ministers inserted in the Constitution by for reconsideration was
      1. a) 44th Amendment
      2. b) 42nd Amendment
      3. c) 43rd Amendment
      4. d) 35th Amendment
    122. Ashok Mehta Committee was constituted to make recommendations on which one of the following issues?
      1. a) Division of tax revenues between
      2. b) Panchayati Raj System
      3. c) Appointment of Governors
      4. d) Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
    123. In India, approximately what percentage of households still use firewood for cooking as per 2011 Census?
      1. a) 20%
      2. b) 40%
      3. c) 50%
      4. d) 60%
    124. Consider the following countries
      1. China
      2. Spain
      3. India
      4.Russia
      Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of the above countries in terms of their share of services sector to Gross Value Added (GVA) during the period 20012015 ?
      1. a) 1, 2, 3. 4
      2. b) 1,3,4,2
      3. c) 1,2,4,3
      4. d) 1,3,2,4
    125. If farmers loans are waived in India, How will it affect aggregate demand in the economy?
      1. Private consumption impact via increase in private sector net wealth
      2. Public sector impact via changes in government expenditure/taxes
      3. Crowding-out impact via higher borrowings by State Governments
      4. Crowding-in impact via higher credit availability as bank NPAs fall
      Select the correct answer using the code given below
      1. a) 1, 2 and 3 only
      2. b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
      3. c) 3 and 4 only
      4. d) 1 and 2 only

    CAPF 2018 Expected Cut off Marks

     
     
     

    CategoryExpected Cut off Marks 2018Cut off Marks 2017Cut off Marks 2016Cut off Marks 2015
    General118 ± 3123.65114111
    OBC115 ± 3123.65113110
    SC98 ± 3111.559795
    ST95 ± 3109.549795

    About CAPF Answer Key

    Overview:  2018 CAPF exam for the paper was conducted by UPSC on 12th August 2018. The Paper 1 of CAPF exam was objective test question paper consisting of 125 questions for 250 marks.

    In the 2018 CAPF paper 1, most of the questions were asked from Polity, History and Current Affairs sections. Environment and Geography section also had a handful of questions. Usually, in CAPF exam UPSC gives more importance to Defence related questions and Science and tech topics, which were missing in this year CAPF paper 1.

    Further, aptitude and reasoning questions were simple and easy to solve but few questions were tricky in nature.

    Overall 2018 CAPF question paper was a blend of both factual and analytical questions. Most of the current affairs questions were factual in nature.

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    Download UPSC CAPF Syllabus & Exam Pattern 

    CAPF SYLLABUS

    CAPF EXAM PATTERN


    Article last updated on

    105 responses on "Download UPSC CAPF 2018 Answer Key & CAPF Cut Off"

    1. Question 19 answer will be 3
      Because total of 4 numbers remain 100 in all 4 diagrams
      So 100=36+54+7+x =>x=3

    2. 121 OBC any chance for next stage? Paper 2 attempted for 190/200 marks

    3. Score 126.67…wts r the cutoff of of general category

    4. Thanks for the informative content on the webpage. Will be thankful enough if you can provide me the direct link from where I can check and download the latest and updated UPSC Exam Pattern.

    5. 98 marks sc category? what are the chances

    6. getting around 118.33 general category
      any expectation as per the low vacancy

    7. 113
      Cavity caused by Less Fluoride
      Mottling by excess Of fluoride

    8. Profile photo of Praveen

      many answers are wrong please retify and post corrected version .

    9. Found 5-6 answers wrong in this key, those were mentioned by others too…plz correct those n upload an updated one. Btw Thanks!

    10. Solution to Answer No. 120
      Corbett- Uttrakhand (4)
      Neora Valley- West Bengal (3)
      Betla- Jharkhand (1)
      Kanha- Madhya Pradesh (2)

      So answer would be D

    11. Solution for Question Number 69
      A , B,C, D,E,F
      A= scores the highest
      B>D
      E is not the least scorer
      C has marks more than AT LEAST TWO

      Given Statements
      1. Atleast two members obtained less marks than C
      2. E and F has scored same marks / E=F

      It will create three possibilities

      (i) A>_>_>C>_>_

      (ii) A>_>C>_>_>_

      (iii) A>C>_>_>_>_

      by statements E and F can’t be placed in last two positions which will contradict with the statement that E had not obtained the lowest marks
      by putting these into our possibilities

      (i) A>E=F>C>B>D

      (ii) A>B>C>E=F>D

      (iii) A>C>E=F>B>D

      we will get the only answer D who have obtained lowest marks

      So answer can be answered using both the statements

    12. Profile photo of Yogesh

      I am in SC category my scored in paper 1st 108 and paper 2 I have attempted 190 marks if any chances for selection…

    13. @neostecilsNeo stencils your website is pathetic every time i scroll down i get a login message. I mean why? If i am not interested in signing up why compel me? May be if i find your website nice i might sign up. But its frustrating to see your dialog box poppig up like an advertisement ? thats not the way you create followers. Its highly unprofessional. Provide good content and people follow your blog automatically. Although it doesn’t matter but you have earned a hater for your website.

    14. Answers of Q. 69, Q.70 I think are wrong..please check

    15. Q. 79 ..answer is 4-3/4 I think. Please check

    16. Profile photo of Hilal

      Please make these questions correct
      Revolt of 1859 it’s answer is (it was supported by intelligentsia of Bengal)source book1857to1947 of Bipin Chandra page no 53
      Mauza is the right answer( it means lowest unit of administration)
      Cripps mission (Congress was represented by Azad and Nehru)

    17. Q. NO 51 ka v answer wrong diya h they asked first true arch no arch. Its correct answer is C TOMB OF BALBAN. WHY YOU GIVE THE DETAIL OF NCERT THEIR IS NOTING WRITE ABOUT FIRST ARCH. THEY EXPLAIN ABOUT ARCH NOT FIRST ARCH.CHECK THIS LINK ALSO https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tomb_of_Balban

    18. Anyone can tell me what marks needs to qualify the paper 2

    19. Question number 40 is also incorrect
      answer would be K. Vishwanath
      they announce award in the year 2017 but actually it is for the 2016 year
      by that source and wikipedia
      its answer should be K. Vishawanath

      by going with the logic of upsc paper setter
      why would paper setter put question of march 2016

      rectify me if i am wrong

    20. I have found errors in 5 questions
      Question No. 14
      Question Number. 16
      Question Number 69
      Question Number 99
      Question Number 120

      from the various sources, i have found your answers wrong

    21. i think qstn no 99 the ans has 2 be optn b 18000..nybdy plz crosscheck….

    22. In the upsc capf ac 2017 answering key in the question no 51,61 you have mentioned the source correctly but markerd wrong answers.

    23. why circum pacific is divergent ?? it is convergent in north and divergent in south..?? what should be the answer then??

    24. Cleared the written exam. Anyone from Delhi who cleared..we can form a group for physical practice,

    25. IBSA exercise …its is first time when it held in indian sea(off Goa). before dis all time its was held off Africa. plz review dis que also

    26. sir in a que u did not consider river as a major source of salinity bt in Mahesh Barnwal book it is clealy mentioned that River are main source of salinity for ocean. plz confirm

    27. If we failed in paper 1 will they evaluate paper 2??

    28. Do we have to qualify each paper seperately or both together??

    29. Profile photo of dushyant singh

      Hello admin i guess your faculty mentioned at least 15 20 question wrong can u update the right answers …thanks 🙂

    30. When will be the result ? Does anybody know how much time it will take to publish the wtitten exam result?

    31. Profile photo of Porus Rajpurohit

      https://neostencil.com/2016-upsc-capf-key/
      I am unable to find the pdf to above link
      Can you please help me out

    32. Q 19 ans should be D as salt mining is carried out in himachal pradesh

    33. Is the answerkey that showing in this site is 100% correct??

    34. Is the answerkey available on upsc site..please somebody reply

    35. Is the updated answer is 100% correct???

    36. how could the answer for ques no 27. be 1027 ??

      • It’s a tricky question. He asked digits that can be typed in 30 minutes>>3000 digits.
        1-9>9digits.
        10-99>180 digits.(90*2)
        100-999>2700 digits(900*3)
        . total 2889.
        remaining 111 digits
        1000-1026>>108 digits.(27*4)
        machine stops by 102, i.e, while typing 1027
        😉
        There might be some short cut , but as there is lot of time in exam I followed this procedure

    37. Chairperson of zila parishad is through election among members….CEO is district collector

    38. Still there were some mistakes in my opinion.
      4. It should be delhi. Ulanabatar is @ 47°N >temperate region. No high temperature. Most of us also experienced extremities in Delhi.
      15. Its 13. There is no chance of getting 12. Plz specify path of 12 if I am wrong.
      18 . Major source of sea salinity is rivers only.
      http://www.utdallas.edu/~pujana/oceans/why.html
      19. Salt mining is famous in Mandi region, HP. I haven’t heard anything abt extracting salt from ground water. Ans may be C
      20. Dharwar system formed in archean period only. Ans should be A http://www.pmfias.com/indian-rock-system-archaean-purana-dravidian-aryan-rock-system/
      21. Both dharwar and aravalos belong to Archean period. Not sure which is earlier. Any geo optional students can throw some light.
      41. Both C and D are wrong. It should be 2000 N-s
      Impulse= m*v= 100*9.8*2
      58. I think it is C. I have tried a lot in exam but didnt get 6 regions.
      77. Ans is C. Its 1st it was conducted in Indian waters
      96. I think it’s Brazil. In Bolivia the incumbent President was not elected for 4th time.
      109. Ans is B. Lord Minto was viceroy, not parliamentarian

      PS: I may be wrong in any question. 🙂

      • Q-15: P-Q-R-S-T-V-U
        Q-18: major source is valcanism
        Q-20: Daharawar and archaean both belong to pre cambrian period but are different
        Q-21: Aravali is older than Dharawar because Aravali belong to archaean
        Q-41: D is correct b/c movement=mv
        Q-58: D is correct b/c if you draw two line which intersect each other in upper part of the region then you will get 6 regions..
        Q-109: I also have same doubt

    39. That “Civil Society” question was first propounded by Hegel, not by Gramsci. Gramsci only criticized Hegel’s conception of Civil society, but it was first used by GWF Hegel himself in modern sense.

    40. Profile photo of NeoStencil

      Hi all, an updated answer key was uploaded at 8am on June 28, 2016. Please make sure you are referring to the correct answer key. The file name for updated version should end in -updated.pdf and have 44 pages. Here is the link: https://neostencil.com/2016-upsc-capf-key/ Thanks for your suggestions and all the best 🙂

    41. What could be the expected cutoff?

    42. Profile photo of amit

      Sir I cant download the answer keyb..send me link plz

    43. How developing societies are parochial in there political culture ______ I think it should be monarchical societies.

      • In parochial society people don’t have gud idea abt their political system. In general, monarchial society may be developed and prosperous where people are diligent like saudi. But its not in the case of developing societies

    44. Lord Minto was Viceroy of India not a Parliamentarian during Minto Morley reforms.

    45. was santhal parganas formed after rebellion??

    46. How can we say Gandhiji gave all India publicity for grievance of Chaparan cultivator??

      he helped them in-situ, and never made any propaganda outside local area.. though people all over India got to know about it, how can we say Gandhi gave all India publicity??

    47. Question 31
      Mundra Port is the largest private port with multiproduct special economic zone owned and operated by Adani Ports & SEZ Limited.

      https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mundra

    48. Earliest evidence of iron? I think its vinaya pitaka as iron came into the picture in the buddism and jainism age

    49. Who among the following divided government into ‘Republican’ ‘Monarchial’ and
      ‘Despotic’?
      Answer should be Aristotle

    50. Chairman of zila Parishad is district collector

    51. Profile photo of MAYUR

      HELLO , Dharwar rock is metamorphic sedimentary source- D.R.Khullar

    52. Profile photo of Ashish

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