Q.1) Which of the following Miss World Title holders are from India?
1) Diana Hayden
2) Yukta Mookhay
3) Priyanka Chopra
4) Manushi Chillar
(a) (3) and (4)
(b) (2) , (3) and (4)
(c) (1), (2) and (3)
(d) (1) , (2) (3) and (4)
Q.2) What is the rank of India in the Inclusive Development Index as given by the World Economic Forum?
Q.3) What is the theme of the International Day for the Disaster Reduction , 2017
a) Living with Disabilities and Disasters
b) Knowledge for life
c) Resilience is for life
d) Home safe home : Reducing Exposure , Reducing Displacement
Q.4) Give it Up campaign is related to which of the following?
a) Tobacco use
b) Alcohol use
c) LPG subsidy
d) None of the above
Q.5) Recently , International Union concerned scientists down listed which of the following from the list of endangered to vulnerable species?
a) Black necked crane
b) Snow leopard
c) Black falcon
d) Polar bear
Q.6) Taking in view Naxal attack in Sukma, Ministry of Home Affairs responsible to Naxal Problem was
a) Sampada scheme
b) Samadhan doctine
c) Jigyasa initiative
d) None of the above
Q.7) Which of the following ports are used by China for its string of pearls policy?
c) Bandar Abbas
d) (a) and (b)
Q.8) The International Astronomical Union [IAU] has named two mountains ranges on the dwarf planet Pluto after whom?
a) Tenzing Norgay and Arunima Sinha
b) Arunima Sinha and Edmund Hillary
c) Edmund Hillary and Kalpana Chwala
d) Tenzing Norgay and Edmund Hillary
Q.9) Name the Indian boxer who has won the gold medal in 2017 Asian Women’s Boxing Champions?
a) Kavita Chahal
b) Pinki Rani
c) Mary Korn
d) Kavita Goyat
Q.10) India has been re-elected as member of the Executive Board of which organization of UNO?
Q.11) Which state became the first state of India to ratify GST bill?
d) Arunachal Pradesh
Q.12) GST was introduced as the _______ Amendment Act.
Q.13) Which of the following denomination note was introduced immediately after announcing Demonetization?
Q. 14) Which state govt. has put in force No. helmet no petrol rule for two wheeler riders?
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Tamil Nadu
Q.15) Indica was Written by :
Q.16) The Rajtarangini composed by Kalhana in the twelfth century is the main source of :
a) History of Assam
b) History of Nepal
c) History of Medieval Kashmir
d) Post Gupta Economics
Q.17) Match the List – I with List – II and select the code given below :
List – I [Scholars]
a) Dayanand Saraswati
b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
c) Max Muller
d) Ganganath Jha
List – II [Original homeland of the Aryans]
Sapta Sindhu Region
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 3 4 2
Q.18) King Ashoka became Buddhist after he was horrified with the tyranny of Kalinga War. It was in :
a) 258 B.C
b) 260 B.C
c) 200 B.C
d) 327 B.C
Q.19) Which of the following Odisha type Nagara style temples are found at Bhubaneswar?
1. Jagannath temple
2. Lingaraja temple
3. Sun temple
4. Mukteswar temple
5. Parasurameswara temple
Choose the answers from the codes below :
a) 4 and 5
b) 2 only
c) 2, 4 and 5
d) 1, 3 and 5
Q.20) The story that Alauddin Khilji invaded to secure Padmini, the queen of Rana Ratna Singh of Mewar , was vividly described by :
a) Malik Muhammad Jayasi in his epic Padmavat
b) Ibn-Batuta in his Rehla
c) Amir Khusraur in Khazain ul Futuh
d) Col. J. Todd in Annals and Antiquities of Rajsathan
Q.21) Who among these was never elected to the Presidentship of INC ?
a) George Yule
b) Alfred Webb
c) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan [Badsha Khan]
d) Nawab Syed
Q.22) Which among the following places were set up as Vedanta CEntres when Swami Vivekananda visited U.S.A in 1899?
2. New York
3. San Francisco
4. Los Angels
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4
Q.23) Who moved [and withdraw] a resolution for the enfranchisement of women in the 1917 Session of Indian National Congress?
a) Annie Besant
b) Sarojini Naidu
c) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay
d) Aruna Asaf Ali
Q.24) V.D. Savarkar authored the book:
a) Eighteen Fifty Seven
b) The Sepoy Mutiny
c) The Indian War of Independence
d) Rebellions in the Indian Mutinies
Q.25) Which of the following peasant movements is not properly matched with the state in which it was launched?
a) Moplah Rebellion – Kerala
b) Pabna Agrarian Movement – Maharashtra
c) Kisan Sabha and Ekta [Unity] Movement – Uttar Pradesh
d) Bardoli Satyagraha – Gujarat
Q.26) Who founded the Satyabadi School with National Spirit in Odisha?
a) Acharya Harihar
b) Madhudhan Rao
c) Gopabandhu Das
d) Krispasindhu Mishra
Q.27) Who among these was not a member of the Cabinet Mission?
b) Archibald Wavell
c) Stafford Cripps
d) Pethick Lawrence
Q.28) The greatest crisis that Akbar faced in 1580 – 81 was when :
a) Salim revolted
b) The disgruntled nobles and officers declared Akbar’s half brother Mirza Hakim as their ruler
c) Rana Pratap escaped from the battle of Haldighat
d) Yusufzais revolted in the North West Frontier
Q.29) Which of the following rock types , the Quartzite is related to ?
a) Igneous Rocks
b) Sedimentary Rocks
c) Metamorphic Rocks
Q.30) Which of the following towns of India is located on Tropic of Cancer?
Q.31) On the basis of area which of the following is the correct descending order of Indian Union Territories?
a) Delhi, Pondicherry and Andaman and Nicobar
b) Pondicherry , Andaman and Nicobar and Delhi
c) Andaman and Nicobar , Delhi and Pondicherry
d) Andaman and Nicobar, Pondicherry and Delhi
Q.32) Which of the following mountains is the oldest?
a) Dinaric Alps
Q.33) Which of the following pairs of Indian Forests is not correctly matched?
a) Monsoon Forest – Teak
b) Mangrove Forest – Sundari
c) Evergreen Forest – Rosewood
d) Savanna Forest – Pipal
Q.34) On which of the following Indian Rivers the Maltoor . Project has been constructed?
Q.35) The ideal temperature of ocean water for the growth of Corals is :
a) 10oC – 15oC
b) 15oC – 20oC
c) 20oC – 25oC
d) 25oC – 30oC
Q.36) Tropical cyclones are not found between 10o north latitude and 10o south latitude due to :
a) High temperature
b) Low Salinity
c) Great Depth of Water
d) Minimum Coriolis Effect
Q.37) Which of the Following is famous for the Cotton Textile Industry?
b) New Castle
Q.38) Which of the following metals, the Zawar mines of Udaipur are famous for?
a) Iron ore
Q.39) Which of the following Indian States is the greatest producer of wind energy?
a) Tamil Nadu
Q.40) Which of the following Iron and Steel Plants does not function under the Steel Authority of India Limited?
Q.41) The Pygmy tribe is associated with :
b) Congo Basin
c) East Africa
Q.42) Which of the following countries has the highest Anthracite Coal reserves?
Q.43) Which of the following are matters on which the Parliament has power to modify provisions of the Constitution by the simple majority?
1. Alternation of names , boundaries and areas of States
2. Appointment of Additional Judges
3. Abolition of second chamber of State Legislature
4. Administration of Scheduled Areas
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) None of the options
d) 2 , 3 and 4
Q.44) Who among the following was the Chairman of the Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
a) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Dr.Rajendra Prasad
d) Sardar Patel
Q.45) The Indian Federation is based on the pattern of :
Q.46) Which of the following are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India?
1. Uniform Civil Code for the citizens
2. Separation of Judiciary from Executive
3. Protection of monuments of national importance
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.47) The philosophical postulates of the Constitution of India are based on :
a) Nehru Report , 1928
b) Objective Resolution of Pandit Nehru, 1947
c) Mahatma Gandhi’s article ‘Independence in Young India’ 1922
d) Indian National Congress’ Resolution for Complete Independence, 1929
Q.48) Who, among the following, was not a member of the State Reorganization Commission [SRC] appointed by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru?
a) Justice Fazl Ali
b) Potti Sriramulu
d) Haridayanath Kunzru
Q.49) Under Article 368, the Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because these are :
a) Enshrined in Part 3 of the Constitution
b) Human Rights
c) Transcendental Rights
d) Part of Basic Structure of the Constitution
Q.50) Which of the following is not an element of ‘Secular State’ in India?
a) Civil equality
b) Taxation on religious property
c) Freedom of religion
d) No religious education by the state
Q.51) Which of the following Act introduced bi-Cameral Legislature at the central level in India?
a) Indian Council Act, 1909
b) The Government of India Act, 1919
c) The Government of India Act, 1935
d) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q.52) Who said, “All communalism is harmful”. The logic of minority communalism is separatism, and majority communalism is separatism , and majority communalism culminates
a) Asish Nandy
b) Bipin Chandra
c) Zoya Hassan
d) Bhikhu Parekh
Q.53) Article 371 of the Constitution of India provides for special provision with respect for special provision with respect to which of the following states[s]?
a) Andhra Pradesh
c) Nagaland and Sikkim
d) Maharashtra and Gujarat
Source: Indian Polity – M Laxmikath 4th Edition Page No. 33.1
Q.54) Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding unitary system?
a) In a unitary system, there is one State and one Government
b) There is constitutional division of powers between the Central and the Local Governments
c) Local bodies derive their power and autonomy from the Central Government
d) Unitary system is particularly suited for a small country
Source: Indian Polity – M Laxmikath 4th Edition Page No. 13.1
Q.55) 73rd Amendment does not apply to the states of :
3. Jammu and Kashmir
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
d) 2 and 3
Source: Indian Polity – M Laxmikath 4th Edition Page No. 34.8
Q.56) The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for the term of :
a) Three years
b) Four years
c) Five years
d) Six years
Source: Indian Polity – M Laxmikath 4th Edition Page No. 39.1
Q.57) Which one of the following is not a salient feature of the Constitution of India?
a) Written Constitution and Supremacy of the Constitution
b) Quasi federal structure
c) Committed Judiciary
d) Distribution of Powers
Source: Indian Polity – M Laxmikath 4th Edition Page No. 3.1-6
Q.58) Which of the following is not a cause of Inequality in India?
a) Inequality in the ownership of assets
b) Laws of Inheritance
c) Corruption and Smuggling
d) Growth of Service Sector in India
Q.59) Which of the following is not an objective of Niti Aayog?
a) Allocating financial resources to states
b) To foster cooperative federalism by evolving a shared vision of National Development Priorities
c) To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans to the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government
d) To pay attention to the weaker sections of the society that may not have benefitted from economic progress
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=114273, Indian Polity – M Laxmikath 5th Edition
Q.60) Which statement depict the best definition of Sustainable Development ?
a) It means optimal utilizahttp://www.nafed-india.com/tion of natural resources
b) Sustainable use and natural resources without considering the need of the future generation
c) Present generation fulfils it’s needs while considers the need of future generation as well
d) None of the above
Source: Indian Economic Development – NCERT Class 11 Chapter 9 Page No.: 171
Q.61) Which of the following is not a cause of growing consumer goods market in India?
a) Growth of middle class in India
c) Liberalisation policy of Government
d) Growing Inequality in India
Source: https://www.ibef.org/industry/indian-consumer-market.aspx, https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/national/india-to-become-third-largest-consumer-market-by-2025-report/article9594395.ece
Q.62) NAFED is a cooperative organization of the
a) State Level
b) National Level
c) District Level
d) Panchayat Level
Q.63) ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana’ is run by :
a) Scheduled Commercial Banks
b) Department of Financial Services , Ministry of Finance
c) Ministry of Rural Development
d) Reserve Bank of India
Q.64) What does it mean by Human Capital Formation?
a) Development of Infrastructure for the Economy
b) Development of abilities and skills of people
c) Increase in the stock of machines equipment , buildings in the Economy
d) Growth of Bank deposits
Q.65) The main argument to establish ‘Special Economic Zones’ in India is :
a) To give a boost to export of manufactured goods
b) To promote export of agricultural goods
c) To give a boost to domestic demand for manufactured goods
Q.66) Janani Surakhya Yojana is a :
a) Hundred percent Centrally Sponsored Scheme
b) Hundred percent State Sponsored Scheme
c) Centre and State has 50 : 50 share
d) Fully sponsored by the private sector
Q.67) Inclusive Growth in India can be achieved
a) Through a Progressive tax
b) Through a Regressive tax
c) Through a Proportional tax
d) By completely scrapping all taxes
Q.68) Payment Banks are different from other Commercial Banks in the following ways:
a) These Banks only accept deposits
b) Only provide payments and remittances services
c) Only distribute third party financial products
d) Accept deposit, provide payments and remittances services , distribute third party financial products but not allowed to lend or issue cards
Q.69) Usual Principal Status Employment is measured in :
a) Number of persons who did not find even an hour of work during the survey week
b) Number of persons who remained unemployed for a major part of the year
c) Number of persons who did not find work in a day or some days during the survey week
Q.70) Tendulkar Committee was appointed on :
a) Poverty Estimation
b) Industry Sector Reforms
c) Bank Frauds
d) Public Welfare
Q.71) Which of the following sectors has attracted the highest Foreign Direct Investment flows into India during the recent years?
a) Chemicals other than fertilizers
b) Services Sector
c) Food Processing
Q.72) Three US Scientists have been awarded the Noble prize in Physics for their work on gravitational waves. Which of the following is not one of them?
a) Rainer Weiss
b) Kip Thorne
c) Barry Barish
d) Jay Hannigam
Q.73) Dark coloured soil with high water holding capacity is considered highly productive as it contains :
a) High clay content
b) Sand and Calcium
c) Clay and humus
d) Silt and earthworms
Source: Indian: Physical Environment NCERT Class 11 Chapter 6 Pag No.: 71
Q.74) The introduction of new life forms in a denuded habitat is initiated by the process of
Q.75) Biological equilibrium is the balance between
a) Producers and consumers
b) Producers and nutrients
c) Consumers and ecological factors
d) Producers consumers and decomposers
Q.76) In a pond eco system , the BOD increases due to
a) Photosynthetic activity of algae
b) High density of acquatic macrophytes
c) High density of fish
d) Increase in the population of bacteria
Q77) Ozone layer in the stratosphere is affected by the increase in the atmospheric concentration of :
Q.78) Considering the global warming potential of CO2 as one, the global warming potential of CO2 as one, the global warming potential CH4 has been estimated to be approximately.
Q.79) The pollutants like phenol and mercury can be removed from water by :
d) Biological oxidation
Q.80) The pollutant generated in high quantity by the thermal power plants is :
d) Fly ash
Q.81) Which of the following cities is associated with organization of “Earth Summit”?
a) New Delhi
Q.82) LNG stands for :
a) Liquid Nitrogen Gas
b) Liquefied Nitrogen Gas
c) Liquid Neon Gas
d) Liquefied Natural Gas
Q.83) Kyoto Protocol was signed by member countries at Kyoto [Japan] in :
Q.84) The first nuclear reactor in India was built in the year 1956 . Its name was
Q.85) What is a bio-gas plant?
b) Aerobic digester
c) Anaerobic digester
Q.86) What for OTEC stands ?
a) Odisha Thermal Energy Corporation
b) Ocean Temperature Energy Conversion
c) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion
d) Organization of Thermal Energy Conversion
Q.87) Bronze is an alloy of :
a) Copper and Nickel
b) Copper and Iron
c) Copper and Tin
d) Copper and Aluminium
Q.88) Which of the following is an ore of iron?
Q.89) Silviculture is the :
a) Arts and Science of cultivating herbs
b) Art and Science of cultivating grasses
c) Art and Science of cultivating flowers
d) Art and Science of cultivating forest trees
Q.90) Arid Forest Research Institute [AFRI] is situated at :
Q.91) It is thought that dozens of ships and planes have disappeared under mysterious circumstances in the area of bad luck and extra terrestrial activity. This area is known as
a) Bermuda triangle
c) Puerto Rico
d) Gulf of Mexico
Q.92) Bleaching powder used in Fish pond is working as :
c) Snail Controller
Q.93) What is a fishing gear?
a) Motorised boats
b) Wooden boats
c) Devices used to catch prawn and lobsters such as nets , traps, hooks and even hands
Q.94) The approximate life time of a common electric bulb is 1,000 hrs whereas the approximate life time of a LED bulb is :
a) 5,000 hrs
b) 10,000 hrs
c) 20,000 hrs
d) 50,000 hrs
Q.95) The safe threshold limit of CO2 concentration in the atmosphere in ppm is :
Q.96) The detection of gravitational wave on 14th September , 2015 by the LIGO collaboration from the merger of two black holes , is the first direct detection of gravitational waves and the first observation of a binary black hole merger. This provides evidence for :
a) Arrhenius theory of electrolytic dissociation
b) Einstein’s general theory of relativity
c) Newton’s law of gravity
d) Theory of black body radiation
Q.97) What is a syngas?
a) It s a gas mixture of CO, H2, CO2 and N2
b) It is a gas mixture of CH4, O2 and CO
c) It is a gas mixture of CH4, CO2, N2, H2 and O2
d) It is a gas mixture of H2 and O2
Q.98) Which Committee has been constituted by the Union Government to continuously monitor the solutions to air pollution?
a) Bhure Lal Committee
b) Sunita Narain Committee
c) C. K. Mishra Committee
d) Harsha Vardhan Committee
Q.99) The two major functional components of any ecosystem are :
a) Energy flow and producers
b) Nutrients cycling and energy flow
c) Energy flow and decomposer population
d) Consumers and energy flow
Q.100) Extinct , critically endangered and vulnerable are the categories assigned to the species by :
Direction [Q.1 to 10]: Read the following two passages and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
Long ago there was a poor Brahmin named Krishnan. He could not find enough work to do. Sometimes, he had his family had to go without food. At last Krishnan decided to leave his village in search of work. Early next morning, he left the house. He walked the whole day until he came to a thick jungle. He was tired, thirsty and hungry. While looking around for water to drink, he found a well . He went to the well and looked in . There he saw a jaguar, a monkey a snake and a man. They had all fallen into the well. They all requested the Brahmin for help. But Krishnan afraid initially of their cruel nature them and thinking that the snake would bite him. Finally he helped jaguar also known as Shersingh the monkey also known as Bali the snake and known as Naagest and the man called Seth Ghanshyamdas all thanked the Brahmin and offered their help to the Brahmin.
After that, the Brahmin continued his journey. But he could not find any work. He then remembered Shersingh, Bali, Nagesh and Seth Ghanshyamdas. He thought it was time to seek their help. He first went to Bali. The monkey was overjoyed to see him. He gave him a warm welcome and offered him some really delicious fruits. Now Krishnan went to see Shersingh, the jaguar. Then Krishnan was given a beautiful gold necklace and other precious jewelery. Kishnan thought the would able to sell the ornaments for a good price. But who could help him to sell the ornaments? He then remembered Seth Ghanshyamdas. He went to him. The goldsmith was glad to see Krishnan. I have come to ask for your help”, said Krishnan “Here are some ornaments, please give me a good price for them.” Seth Ghan shyamdas took the jewellery and examined it carefully. “I shall certainly help you”, he said , “But let me show them to another goldsmith . Please wait here. I will be right back. “ He then went out with the ornaments. Seth at once rushed to the Palace of the King . He said, “A man brought these ornaments to me and asked me to sell them, But they are the ornaments I made for the Prince who is missing”, Who is this man? Where is he? ‘thundered the King. “This rogue must have murdered my little Prince and robbed his jewel!” He is a Brahmin named Krishnan, Your Majesty” , replied the goldsmith, and he is there in my house. “ The King called for his most dreaded soldiers, “Arrest the Brahmin who is in the goldsmith’s house and throw him into the darkest dungeon’s of the Kingdom!”
Q.1) Why did Krishnan decide to leave his village?
a) As he could not find much work in his own village and his family had to starve sometimes because of it
b) As his family had requested him to do so
c) As his village people had asked him to leave their village and look for work somewhere else
d) As he wanted to search for food in a village different from his own
Q.2) Why did the jaguar, the monkey and the snake tell Krishna not save the man in the well?
a) As the man in the well was a goldsmith
b) As the man in the well had cheated the snake, the monkey and the jaguar
c) As the snake , the monkey and the jaguar hated the man as they had known him for a very long time
d) None of the above
Q.3) Why was Krishnan afraid to save Naagesh from the well?
a) As Naagesh had threatened him with dire consequences
b) As he thought Naagesh would eat him
c) As he thought Naagesh would bite him once he was out of the well
d) As he thought that Naagesh would capture , him as soon as he got out of the well
Q.4) Why did Krishnan go to meet Seth Ghanshyamdas?
a) As he thought that Seth Ghanshyamdas could help him in selling the ornaments gifted to him by Shersingh
b) As he knew that Seth Ghanshyam das had contact with the King which could prove to be beneficial
c) As seth Ghanshyamdas had requested Krishnan to sell ornaments only to him
d) As Krishnan extremely fond of Seth Ghanshyamdas
Q.5) What did Bali, do after seeing Krishnan at his house?
1) He gave Krishnan directions to Shersingh’s house
2) He welcomed Krishnan to his house
3) He offered tasty fruits to Krishnan
a) Only (1)
b) Only (2)
c) Only (3)
d) Only (2) and (3)
Passage – II
Sheela and Jairam were a poor old couple. Their only possession was one cow. Once Jairam fell very sick. Soon all their money was used up in buying medicines and they realized that they would have to sell their cow in order to bear the rest of the expenses. Sheela decided to go to the market and sell the cow. She set off, leading the cow by a rope. On the way, she met four young men. They were the local bullies who enjoyed teasing and something old people. When they saw old Sheela with her cow, they decided to play a trick. One of them sneaked up behind her untied the cow and tied a goat in its place. Sheela had been walking immersed in thought, worried about Jairam. The four bullies continuously deceived the old woman by replacing the cow with a goat a rooster, a log of wood and finally leaving rope itself and they shouted each time. “Magic in the air, Grandma”.
When Sheela finally reached the market, she found that she had nothing but a rope in her hand. She came back some dejected as she had lost the cow. She told Jairam the whole story. He immediately understood what had happened and he asked to cock for at least four people . I said he would come home with some guests . As soon as they come you must say, ‘I cooked what the rabbit told me. Come, eat your lunch, ‘Leave everything else to me’. Jairam reassured her . Her borrowed two identical rabbits from a friend. He left one at home, tied the other one with a string and started walking towards the market with it. On the way he too met the four bullies. They tried to tease the old man. Jairam sighed sadly and said, ‘The rabbit is like my son. It obeys everything I say. But now I am sick and we need money so I am going to sell it in the market.” The four bullies were surprised when they heard this. “Does it really understand what you say. Grandfather ?” they asked. Jairam replied, “Of course it does. Here, watch me,” Jairam turned towards the rabbit and said, Hop home and tell Sheela to make chapattis, vegetable and kheer for four people. “Then he united the string and let the rabbit hop away. He turned towards the four boys and said, “Come home and have lunch with me.” When they reached his home his wife welcomed them and said, “I cooked what the rabbit asked me to cook. Come, eat your lunch. She served the chapattis, vegetable and kheer to all of them. The four bullies were stunned when they saw the rabbit sitting in the corner. They told Jairam, “We will buy your rabbit.”Jairam pretended to think and said. “It is very precious to me.” The four bullies immediately offered him a higher price. Jairam shoed some reluctance. The moment he agreed to sell the rabbit they paid him the money and left with the rabbit immediately. The four bullies decided to test the rabbit’s abilities. They had been blackmailing a landlord for money. So they told the rabbit. “Go and tell the landlord to bring us the money within ten minutes.” The rabbit hopped off. They waited but the landlord did not come with the money. They marched to his house and yelled, “Give us the money and our rabbit.” The landlord decide to teach these bullies a lesson. He ordered his strongest bodyguard to give them a good thrashing. Bleeding and bruised they went back to Jairam’s house and said, “You fooled us. Return our money at once, “Jairam simply smiled and said, the money has disappeared ! There is magic in the air.
Q.6) When did Sheela and Jairam decide to sell the cow ?
a) They had spent all their money on Jairam’s sickness and needed more money.
b) They were fed up of the four bullied and wanted to teach them a lesson
c) They wanted to invite the four bullied for lunch and needed money for buying the ingredients.
d) None of the options
Q.7) Why was Jairam reluctant to sell the rabbit?
a) He only pretended to be reluctant in order to fool the bullies
b) He was fond of the little rabbit and did not want to sell it to the bullies.
c) None of the options
d) He wanted to sell the rabbit in the market and get a better price of it
Q.8) Which of the following may be an appropriate title to the passage?
a) Magic in the air
b) Never steal a cow
c) The strongest bodyguard
Q.9) What did Sheela do after reaching the market empty handed ?
a) Determined to earn money, she managed to sell the rope that she was left with
b) She returned home dejected and narrated the whole incident to her husband
c) She bought two rabbits and devised a plan to get back at the bullies
Q.10) Arrange the following incidents in a chronological order as they occurred in the passage
1. Jairam and Sheela needed money
2. The four bullies sent the rabbit to the land lord
3. Sheela cooked chapattis vegetable and kheer
4. The four bullies tied a log of wood to the rope
Q.11) When your text says that interpersonal communication can be thought of as a constellation of behaviours, it means that :
a) It is important to understand the joint actions people perform when they are together
b) It is important to understand how people label and evaluate relationships
c) It is important to understand the opposing forces that pull communications in different directions
d) Inter personal communication is not a constellation of behaviour
Q.12) A letter that completes a valid contract between a buyer and a seller is called :
a) an order letter
b) an acknowledgement letter
c) an inquiry
d) a sales letter
Q.13) In order to understand verbal and non verbal communication which of the following things should we do?
a) Accept cultural differences
b) Studying your own culture
c) Learn about other cultures
d) All of the above
Q. 14) It refers to the behavioural characteristic, typical of a group. It can be defined as all the ways of life including arts, beliefs and institutions of a population that are passed down from generation to generation. Match this statement with one of the following concepts.
c) Social lag
Q.15) They maintain friendly pleasant relations with you , regardless, whether you agree with them or not . Good communications command your respond and goodwill. You are willing to work with them again, despite their differences.
Match the above statement with one of the following :
Q.16) When the company thinks your audience will be interested in what you have to say or willing to cooperate it usually opts for :
a) Indirect approach
b) Direct approach
c) Both (a) and (b)
Q.17) The nature of communication can be expressed as a process of
a) Establishing mutual relationship
b) Exchange of ideas between two persons
Q.18) When an individual becomes a ‘source ‘ in the process of communication he is called :
a) A messenger
b) A living source
c) A receiver
d) A translator
Q.19) “Channel “ in communication is :
a) The way or medium by which a message travels
b) The linking process between sender and receiver
c) A functional state of communication
Q.20) The word communication is derived from :
Q.21) “Chronemics” is related :
a) Time-related communication
b) Muscular related communication
c) Signal related communication
d) Expression related communication
Q.22) A cube of side 3 cm is coloured pinkish on all sides. It is then cut into smaller cubes of 1 cm side. How many cubes will have two-faced coloured?
Q.23) A cube is a coloured red on one face, green on the opposite face, yellow on another face and blue on a face adjacent to the yellow face. The other two faces are left uncoloured. It is then cut into 125 smaller cubes of equal size. How many cubes are uncoloured on all the faces?
Q.24) Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so
Assumptions : (i) At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and ready to learn.
(ii) The schools do not admit children after six years of age
a) if only argument (i) is implicit
b) If only argument (ii) is implicit
c) If either (i) or (ii) is implicit
d) If neither (i) nor (ii) is implicit
Q.25) If the following series is written in reverse order and then all the vowels are deleted ,which will be the 8th letter from the right in the new series?
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Q.26) If the first and fifth letters of the word ‘BILINGUAL’ were interchanged, also the second and sixth letters and so on which of the following would be 7th letter from your right?
d) None of these
Q.27) In the following question which letter group is different from the rest?
Q.28) Out of the following find out the odd one :
Q.29) Three of the following four are alike in a certain and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
Q.30) Find the word which is different from the other three words:
Q.31) If “DEAR” is coded as “FGCT” , then how will “READ” be coded as ?
Q.32) If “BEAR” is coded as “FISH” , as “CROW”, “CROW” as “DOG” and “DOG” as “ELEPHANT” and “ELEPHANT” as “ASS” , then who cannot remain alive in other place than water?
Q.33) If all the prime numbers from 1 to 49 are removed, then how many numbers will remain?
Q.34) These are 35 steps to reach temple. On descending from the temple Soni takes two steps in the same time Gunjan ascends four steps. If they start to work simultaneously, at which step will they meet each other?
Q.35) How many numbers are there from 4 to 53 which are either divisible by 3 or of which any digit contains zero?
Q.36) If the following numbers are written in ascending order then what will be the middle digit of the middle term?
815, 686 , 795, 835, 765, 822, 719
Q.37) Q’s mother is sister of P and daughter of M.S is the daughter of P and sister of T. How is M related to T?
d) Maternal grandfather or grand mother
Q.38) If “P + Q” means “P is the husband of Q” , “P/Q” means “P is the sister of Q” and “P x Q” means “P is son of Q” which of the following shows “A is the daughter of B”?
a) A/D x B
b) D x B + C/A
c) B + C x A
d) C x B/A
Q.39) Pointing to a photograph a man said “I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is my father’s son’ Whose photograph was it?
a) His son’s
b) His own
c) His fathers
d) His nephew’s
Q.40) Statement : If Dinesh has finished reading the instruction then let him begin the activities accordingly
(i) Dinesh would understand the instructions
(ii) Dinesh is capable of performing the activities
a) If only argument (i) is implicit
Q.41) Statement : We need not worry about errors but we must try to learn from out errors
Assumptions : (i) Errors may take place when we are carrying out certain work
(ii) We are capable of benefitting from the past and improve our chances error free work
d) If both (i) and (ii) are implicit
Q.42) A solid cube of size 6 cm, whose opposite faces are painted red, green and pinkish respectively, is cut into smaller cubes of size 1 cm each, then how many small cubes will be there with no face painted?
Q.43) Statement : Should the private companies be allowed to operate passenger train service in India?
Arguments : Yes , This will improve the quality of service in Indian Railways and it will be faced with severe conditions
(ii) No, the private companies may not agree to operate in the non profitable sectors.
a) If only argument (i) is strong
b) If only argument (ii) is strong
c) If either (i) or (ii) is strong
d) If neither (i) and (ii) is strong
Q.44) Statement : Should school education be made free in India?
(i) Yes , this is the only way to improve the level of literacy
(ii) No , it should add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.
Q.45) Statement : Should open book examination be introduced for professional courses in India?
(i) No, it will not seriously improve the value and importance of present examination system
(ii) Yes, all candidates can pass easily and can start their professional life
Q.46) Statement : Should scheme of lotteries be completely stopped in India?
(i) No, Many state governments will have to stop some of their developmental activities which they fund from surplus generated by their lottery scheme?
(ii) No, many unemployed youth who sell lottery tickets to earn their livelihood will face hardship
Q.47) Statement : Should getting primary education be incorporated as a fundamental right in India?
(i) No, what is the use? Have we fulfilled our duties regarding other fundamental rights?
(ii) Yes, this is what all the developed countries have done
Direction [Q. Nos 48 to 52] : Study the following table carefully and answer the given questions.
During the year 1994 – 1999 the number of presented and passed candidates from six states
Q.48) What is the approx percentage of the passed candidate jointly from all the six states to the presented candidates in the year 1994?
Q.49) Which is one of the following states has maximum percentage of the passed candidates to the presented candidates in 1996?
Q.50) What is the percentage of passed candidates jointly from the state ‘C’ in the year 1995 and 1998 to the presented candidates jointly from the state ‘B’ in the year 1994 and 1997?
Q.51) What is the approx. average number of passed candidates from state D in the given years?
Q.52) Which of the following yrs has least percentage of passed candidates to the presented candidates from the state F?
Q.53) In the following question find out the group of letters in the place of question in the letter series :
H3M, I5O, L98, Q17A, ?
Q.54) In the following question find out the group of letters in the place of question in the letter series :
1/R, 3/O, 5/K, 9/F, 13/Z,?
Q.55) In the following question find out the group of letters in the place of a question in the letter series :
Q.56) In a matrix some numbers are filled according to a rule. A place is left blank. Find the number of the given possible answers
Q.57) In a matrix some numbers are filled according to a rule. A place is left blank. Find the number from the given possible answers :
Q.58) In a matrix some numbers are filled according to a rule. A place is left blank. Find the number from the given possible answers.
Q.59) The value of 5+ 11+19+29+49 = ?
Q.60) The smallest number of 4 digits which is a perfect square is :
Q.61) Square root of (314)4–(413)4(314)2–(413)2 is :
Q.62) A frog tries to come out of a dried well 9 m deep with slippery walls. Every time the frog jumps 60 cm, slides back by 30 cm. how many jumps the frog have to take to come out of the wall ?
Q.63) The total monthly income of 16 persons is Rs.80,000 and the income of one of them is 120 % of the average income, then his income is
Direction [Q. Nos. 64 & 65] : A School has four Sections – A, B, C, D of Class IX students. The results of half yearly and annual examinations are shown in the table given below :
Q.64) If the number of students passing an examination be considered criteria for comparison of the difficulty level of two examinations, which one of the following statements is true in this context?
a) Half yearly examinations were more difficult
b) Annual examinations were more difficult
c) Both the examinations had almost the same difficulty level
d) The two examinations cannot be compared for difficulty level
Q.65) How many students are there in Class IX in the school?
Direction [Q. Nos. 66 & 67]: Study the following line graph and answer the questions :
Q.66) For which of the following pairs of years the total exports from the three companies together are equal?
a) 1995 and 1998
b) 1996 and 1998
c) 1997 and 1998
d) 1995 and 1996
Q.67) What was the difference between the average exports of the three companies in 1993 and the average exports in 1998?
a) 15.33 crores
c) 20 crores
d) 22.17 crores
Direction [Q. No. 68] : The following data represents the distribution of male and female in a village for the following years.
Q.68) Which of the following regarding the sex ratio [No. of females per 1,000 males] is true ?
a) It steadily increases and then decreases
b) It steadily increases
c) It steadily decreases
Direction [Q. Nos. 69 & 70] : The following data represents the percentage bar diagram of population in the year 2015 in two villages.
Q.69) What is the ratio of Christians to Muslims in Villages A?
a) 1 : 3
b) 2 : 1
c) 1: 2
Q.70) What is the difference in the percentage of SC/ST compared to other caste in Village A and B ?
b) 8 %
c) 10 %
d) None of the above
Passage – I
Direction [Q. Nos. 71 to 75] : Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
It was in Germany and France that the first successful attempts were made to produce and internal-combustion engine driven by petrol. In England, people were strangely timid about horseless vehicles. English inventors were handicapped by a quaint old law that forbade any such vehicle to attain a greater speed than four miles an hour and compelled each one to be preceded by a man carrying a red flag. This law was not repealed until 1896.
The earliest motor cars were looked upon as mere jokes, or as rather dangerous playthings, by everyone except their inventors. Some of them were single-seaters, others would carry two or even three people, but all were noisy, clumsy, queer-looking things. When in 1888, Carl Benz, a German, produced a three-wheeled internal combustion car, great forward stride had been made. Another German, whose name Daimler, is often seen on motor cars to this day, was experimenting about the same time, and testing a petrol-driven engine.
It is easy to understand how the introduction of the petrol-driven engine revolutionized toad transport throughout the world. Until then the necessary power to push a vehicle along could not be obtained without the cumbersome tanks, boilers and furnaces of the steam engine. The internal-combustion engine is light in weight and small in size by comparison, the fuel is burned in it, so that there is no waste, like the dusty cinders of a coal fire.
Q.71) How did most people regard early motor cars ?
a) Not better than horse-driven vehicles
b) A mere joke or as rather dangerous playthings
c) A mere scientific experiment
d) A cumbersome vehicle
Q.72) What were all early motor cars?
a) A plaything or toy
b) A vehicle better than horse-driven vehicle
c) Noisy, clumsy, queer-looking things
d) Dangerous and risky
Q.73) What does ‘repealed’ mean?
Q.74) which among the following words is as closely opposite to ‘clumsy’ ?
c) Unusually large
Q.75) What is incorrect about the internal combustion engine?
a) Fuel burnt in a waste
b) Light in weight
c) Noisy and clumsy
d) Small in size
Direction [Q. Nos. 76 to 80] : Read the following passage and answer the question given below :
On August 15, 1947, India was granted independence from British colonial dominance. This was an event of international significance. From this day onwards, the Indian Union assumed a role in world politics that was appropriate enough to modify the thinking of nations. Concepts like non-alignment, tolerance, non-violence and peaceful coexistence were introduced by India into the international vocabulary.
“Our dreams concern India”, said the first Prime Minister of the country. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru, on the eve of achieving freedom. “but they also concern the whole world, for the world has become one.”
Mahatma Gandhi chose Nehru to become the first Prime Minister of independent India. With his vision of unity of the nation, he became the architect of modern India. It was to be federal state based on secularism – the commitment to an Indian identify, which was above all races, castes and religions. It was vision of extraordinary dimensions.
Nehru as well as his daughter and successor, Smt. Indira Gandhi, were well aware that only a firm anchorage in the Indian identify could unite the nation and enable it to make an impact on the world in these days of mutual independence, the western powers and America cannot afford to ignore what is happening in this region. It is possible that the fate of the Asian democracies would one day be decided on the banks of the banks of Ganges. If India fails to remain a democracy, this would trigger the fall of the whole of South-East Asia. That is why the Indian Prime Minister has to play a role that goes well beyond duties related to internal affairs only. It is of international political significance.
Q.76) What made Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru the architect of Modern India ?
a) He secured independence for India
b) His vision of he unity of the nation
c) Because he was the first Prime Minister of India
d) He wanted India to make an impact on the world
Q77) Which of the following concepts have been introduced by India into the international vocabulary ?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) all of these
Q.78) Which word in this passage is used to describe the phrase “to love together with mutual tolerance”
Q.79) Select from the answer choices, the word that is synonymous to dimensions :
Q.80) Select the word that is nearly opposite in meaning to ‘dominance’ used in this passage :
The OPSC has conducted Prelims exam for the recruitment of State Civil services for around 100 vacancies. In OPSC Prelims exam there were two papers – General Studies Paper 1 and 2.
In 2018 Prelims question paper, most of the questions were asked from general studies subject History, geography, Science, etc. The questions were simple in nature and approachable. Since the vacancy is less and questions were relatively easier the cut off marks will vary when compared to previous year exams.
Our cut off prediction for 2018 OPSC Exam is
OPSC Answer Key 2018 and OPSC Cut Off 2018 is prepared by the team NeoStencil in collaboration with Top Civil Services Institutes in India. The OPSC Prelims Exam 2018 is held at various centers in Bhubaneswar and in certain other districts in Odisha on the 18th February 2018, the OPSC Civil Services Answer Key 2018 will help determine OPSC Cut Off 2018 based on a large number of students and experienced teachers from India’s top IAS coaching institutes. As always NeoStencil will be the first to launch the OPSC Prelims Answer Key 2018 pdf with explanations and sources as soon as the exam ends, for the benefit of the candidates who would like to get a fair idea of how they performed and check their answers. OAS Pre Answer Key 2018 will be helpful to assess your exam performance and check your eligibility for next level.
OPSC Answer Key 2018 includes answers for Paper 1 & 2 but also the complete question paper for candidates along with detailed explanations and their sources. OPSC Civil Services Answer Key 208 helps to determine OPSC Cut Off 2018 based on a large number of students and experienced teachers from India’s top IAS coaching institutes. Register now on NeoStencil for access and download the OPSC Prelims Answer Key 2018 with detailed explanations and their sources.
OPSC Cut Off 2018 shall be decided by merit based on paper 1 (General Studies) of prelims exam. Paper 1 carries 200 Marks. Candidates who had appeared for the OPSC Prelims Exam 2018 can check the OAS Pre Answer Key 2018 and assess their chances of writing mains exam. Only the candidates who qualify in Paper 1 will be eligible to appear for the Odisha Civil Services Mains Exam. OPSC Answer Key 2018 for OPSC Prelims Exam 2018 will be prepared by the expert faculties & partner institutes of NeoStencil.
NeoStencil offers courses through its unique LIVE learning platform for UPSC/IAS – IES/GATE – SSC CGL and State PCS exams where you can access classrooms and test series program of the best teachers of India, from the comfort of your home. Students preparing for various Civil Services exam through NeoStencil and its associated institutes have secured 43 out of top 100 ranks and more than 500 total selections in the IAS Results in 2017. If you are interested in UPSC/IES/SSC/GATE/State PCS Online preparation from Top Institutes in India, please feel free to check the multitude of courses we have for Live Online Classes for IAS/IES/SSC and other state services.
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Leave your comments below:
Dimple mishra…@@ I hve also the same doubt….about chairman question…..rajendra prasad was the president…not chairman….I guess……no where it is mentioned in any book…that rajendra prasad was the chairman…N the question didnot mention which committee specifically
Tropic of cancer question…whether it passes through bharuch or bhopal…both r closer to tropic of cancer
Life time of LED bulb is 50,000 hrs according to google.
According to Neostencil answer keys iam scoring 102 after deducting negative marks, and i belong to SEBC catagory, MALE. is there any hope??
for that payment bank i have eliminated option D as mentioned only cards but most of the answer key has the given as D, drafting committee as per the question it should be ambedkar but all have given Rajendra prasad, for Akbar question confusion between 2 options and again temperature range also a confused question . 2-3 more questions are in dilemma also ,so cutoff will change as per OPSC key
But I belong to sebc category. Paper 1 my score 108. Paper 2 my score 145. Any chances ?
For ur category,the cutoff should be in the range of 80-90
cut off will be 50%
In Paper 1 my score will be 108 to 110. In paper 2 my score will be 145. I know that I will easily qualify in the 2nd paper . But what are my real chances in the ist paper ? Will I prepare for the mains or I will wait for the results ?
guys the new indian elected to un body is dalveer singh in icj ,after an indian getting re-elected in unesco..
i think their answer is wrong
right answer is ICJ
The operative term is re-elected to EXECUTIVE BOARD. Unesco has executive board as it is there in news. ICJ has bench of judges and that is not executive board. Executive and Judicial bench are 2 different things.
Sir I have secured 120 mark in gs papers I as per your answer key concerned.can i get clear my prelims.if yes then plz tell me ???
Cut off mark is addition of Paper-1 & paper-2 Or only Paper-1 mark and paper-2 is qualify mark? Please answer my query.
Hello NeoStencil..how the cut off mark will be made. both from paper 1 and 2 or only from 1.
Only From Paper 1 , Paper 2 is of qualifying nature with 33% required for passing
My score is 110 as per my extensive research in internet for every questions. There are so many mistakes in Neostencil’s keys. So If i check with neostencil then my score would certainly reach 130!!!
What a joke..There are hardly 1-2 errors here..Most accurate key available in the market is Neostencil…Good luck to you if you think otherwise.
very ryt sid bro
In my opinion, only 3 questions are wrong for sure and another 2 are in grey areas. But the variations from 130 to 110 is too much. Btw good luck with your preparation.
Could you please list down the wrong question as well as the correct answers as per your “EXTENSIVE RESEARCH”. I have listed out my observations below. You can check that also. It will be beneficial for all if something new come up.
some answers are wrong.. pls correct it
In 2015,Nov . OSSC conducted prelim exam for ICS exam for 69 gen seats (Male), SEBC 4 (M), ST (10)M, SC (5)M. Where 40,000 have applied for this post and this exam was conducted at same time during OAS 2015 exam and it is obvious OAS aspirant must have applied for this ICS exam in Nov 2015. And in ICS for shortlisting to main exam they have a ratio of 1:12 same as OAS. And the cut off for shortlisting to main exam was 41 marks out off 100 for GEN. And the point which is to be noted that this ICS exam too have NEGATIVE marking. So OAS Expected cut off for Gen Who are scoring 95/+-5 ,SEBC 90/+-5,SC 75/+- 5, ST 60/+-5.
i m getting 120 according to google source which i used to check keys.
How much are u getting acc to Neostencil key? Think about minimum score…u will end up getting higher…most of the answers are correct here except 1 or 2….most accurate key is this…..
Hi. Request you to advice how much mark is needed to sail through? In Paper 1 I got 60 correct answers and 23 wrong answers. I understand it will be (55×2=110-23×0.25 i.e 5.75=104.25). Is this calculation correct? If yes, is it a good score? Also Please advice is there any advantage of scoring more than 33% in Paper 2. Will it add to paper 1 to decide rank? Little confused…Can advice?
can you please tell me from where to cover odisha geog and history portion for GS1
As this year only paper 1 score will decide the merit list.what would be the cutoff score of SC mail candidate
Cut off for OPSC 2018 is updated. Please check & review.
55 correct answer x 2= 110- 23 wrong answer 23 x 0.25 i.e 5.75= 104.25….The calculation is correct? If yes, is it a good score? Also please advice if getting more than 33% will add to results? or it is only qualifying in nature?
23*0.5=11.5; 110-11.5=98.5; better luck in the future;
which catagory u r????
For Group D in Paper 2 aspirants, check as below:
Question from SET D: 1 – 10
Same as question from SET B: 71 – 80
Question from SET D: 11 – 17
Same as question from SET B: 1 – 7
Question from SET D: 18 – 70
Same as question from SET B: 8 – 60
Question from SET D: 71 – 80
Same as question from SET B: 61 – 70
Mine was also SET D. So, I found this way out.
Imy score is 101 according to neo still inur category is there any chance
Can anyone tell me expected cut of.. In paper 1.iam scoring 101.. Is there any chance.. Me sebc category.. Please kindly give ur valuable suggestion
Cut off for OPSC 2018 is updated. Please check & review.
please update all the answer keys..
all are given except set d of paper 2. kindly post your score.
hello friends im getting around 132 in paper1 and 99 in paper2 can i get chance of writting mains in general category
132 according to which answer key? subtract 6 marks …but still good enough….Whch answer key did u check? Are you from bbsr?
i am getting 132 according answer keys provided by NEOSTENCIL
6set d answer
paper 2 set D answer please send
Please share Set D paper 2 question paper to email@example.com
What do you think the cutoff will be? 110 for general?
110 according to neostencil? I am getting 110
for paper1 110 and for paper 2 what is the mark?
guys i am getting 110!! i think cut would be around that only.. i am still in a danger position. please guys mention ur scores here!!!
if u are getting 110 according to neostencil, you are going to lose 2 questions atleast. that accounts to 6 marks.
mine is 117 this year…. UR catagory ….any chance?
Are you saying exactly as per the answer key of NEOSTENCIL?
no not per xactly neostancil…… becoz some answers are wrong… i used VANIK answer also
VANIK also says committed judiciary and Lancashire is wrong. Plus it says 73 rd amendment applies to kashmir, mizo, assam etc; China has highest anthracite reserve. These are wrong.
yes i have seen that ,,… Vanik has more wrong answers than neostan …… but i think as per official answer keys score will vary widely
LANCASHIRE, COMMITTED JUDICIARY; these are correct answers but given wrong here. REST are mostly correct.
yes LANCANSHARE shld be the correct one nd commtd judiciary also……..
i am getting 110.5
if i use only neostancil then my score is 108
Lancashire is correct; committed judiciary is correct; humus and clay is correct; RANJIT, how much are you getting? Mine is 100.
yes if a soil contain humus then it becomes dark
Yes, though it is true that soil colour becomes dark in presence of HUMUS, the question have 3 parts.
1. water retention capacity which is unique for Regur soil
2. Regur soil is highly productive also.
But it is deficient of organic matter (NCERT)
Similarly, the Peaty soil of Terai region is dark in colour due to partly decomposed organic matters like leaf. But it is the most unproductive soil.
Thats why I believe it should be clay only. Rest is on OPSC.
My score should be anything above 124. I have used google and books mostly to check answers besides NEOSTENCIL and VAJIRAO.
can u provide VAJIRAO answer keys???
Please look in to these:
Q57: We donot have committed judiciary or bureaucracy as envisaged in constitution. They are expected to act independently irrespective of party in power.(Source: Common sense)
Q68: Payment bank can issue debit card though they cannot issue credit card. In this question only card is mentioned. It should be presumed as debit card and not credit card or any other luxury cards. Anyways the statement is wrong because of the term CARD.
Q73: The dark soil is deficient of HUMUS. So, answer should be only clay. (Source: Any standard book)
Q94: There is no consensus on life time of LED bulb. For the 1st google search provide 50000 as life time of LED as a caregorical statement.
Q37: Lancashire is famous for cotton textile. (Source: Google search and many scholarly article)
Earlier OPSC Used to short list against both GS PAPER -I &II.
165 cut off for General (adding both paper)
In general candidates score 20/30 % more marks in Paper -II.
This year the P-II is only meant to qualify. Over that Paper-I was little dynamic/tougher than previous years.
Keeping all the points in view : CUT OFF MARK FOR OPSC CSE 2017 may be somewhere 80+/-5 (75-85).
Thank You !
165 cutoff is for which year??? in 2015 or 2016
2015,it’s there in notification in OPSC site.But that was including two paper ,so no inference can be done from that giving this years change.
NEOSTENCIL PLEASE POST PAPER 2 D SET ANSWER.WE ARE EAGER TO WATCH IT
Please upload OCS paper II set C answer key
Who is getting above 115 in gs paper 1? 105 should be safe. 33 seats for general; So 300-350 candidates should be called. 2015 cutoff for 230 general seats was 165/400 (41.25%). So 2300 students had scored above 41.25% at that time. So cutoffs this year cannot be less than 83. Add 20-25 marks and you will most probably get your cutoff. 103-107 should be enough.
may be 165 was cutoff for 2015… but look at the vacancies .. in 2015 670 posts was there… and in 2017 only 106 posts are there…….. so cutoff will be high
2 answers are wrong. LANCASHIRE will be the answer for cotton mills ; Committed judiciary will be the answer inanother question
What will d cut f..can anyone plz tell
117.5 in paper 1 is there any chance for general candidate??
i think 120 marks in paper 1 is good for qualifying prelims
Did you score heavily in paper 1 or in paper 2 last year?
in paper 1 i scored 104 nd in paper 2 it was 150… in total 254
Thanks for your information, brother. The point that i was trying to make is that GS-2 is a scoring paper and GS-1 (whatever be its level or difficulty), people are bound to make errors . So, 110-120 is an excellent score and should be enough to sail through for general.
yes people generally do mistakes in paper 1 …….. for gud candidates score will be in betn 110-130
so post ur no. of correct answers of paper 1 only
merit list will be according to paper 1 only…… this tym paper 2 is qualifying ,,,,, 33% in paper 2 is required
Good quality of questions set in the paper. Comparative to UPSC paper, on easier side of it, but way better in comparison to MP and Chhattisgarh state civil services.
I can’t believe it was owsome 156 and correct 169 attempt from total 180 ques. Today opsc exam 18.02.2018
I can’t believe it was owsome 144ans correct attempt 169 from total 180 ques. Today OPSC preliminary exam
in paper 1 only how many are correct?????
Cut off is addition of both papers or only paper 1
want see set D answer
Please upload the answer key of OPSC-2017 Prelim paper -II of Set C&D .
SetA paper 2 question number 37,38,and 39 answers are incorrect
update paper -2 answer keys for SET – C AND SET -D
In case of any correction(s), let us know, we will go back to our teachers and get them reviewed.
UPDATE ANSWER KEY FOR SET- C AND D paper -II
Hi RC Samal,
Please share the SET C and SET D Question Paper to firstname.lastname@example.org
UPDATE ANSWER KEYS OF PAPER-2 FOR SET C AND SET D
I did 50 question s incorrect . shall I be qualify ? Answer me .
yes…..buddy you will qualify directly to the personality test… NO MAINS EXAM for you…SPECIAL CASE
What be the cutoff
does anyone know cutoff in previous OPSC prelims for unreserved caegory ?
dont knw abt cutoff ,,,,,,bt i scored 255 last tym nd qualifyd for mains
Great…Great… with in 2 hour..u posted answer
plz also post the paper 2
Where is paper 2 answer key
Paper 2 answer key will be uploaded by 9 pm
42 question answer is wrong
Cut off mark for ocs prelim 2017
Sorry i think 45%
33% is the qualification score
What is the expected
cut off marks in opsc prelims 2017
Expected cut off marks will be updated by tomorrow
plz upload expected cutoff
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