Subtotal: ₹ 25,000
MPSC Answer Key 2018 – Paper 1
MPSC Pre Answer Key 2018 – Paper 2
Answer Key table (All Sets) – Paper 1
Answer Key table (All Sets) – Paper 2
MPSC Prelims Cut Off 2018
This year’s MPSC paper was a mixed bag of conventional subjects and current affairs. The questions asked in the examination were of easy to moderate level from almost in all the sections.
General Science and Ecology questions were tough and required thorough knowledge of basic concepts and facts. e.g.-question on Gregor Mendel, Maximum yield of ATP, Disease of copper deficiency in trees, etc.
But, Polity questions were somewhat easy, scoring and were directly asked from the standard text books such as Indian Polity by M.Laxmikanth. So this section must have saved many and helped them to score good. e.g.-Zero Hour, Panchayats in Scheduled Areas & PESA Act,
However, Economy questions were largely conceptual and required application of theories. e.g.-question on Inflation, Poverty, etc. History was of moderate level. It had almost equal questions from Ancient India, Medieval India and Modern Indian history. Geography had a tilt towards Physical Geography
In the name of Current Affairs, the exam asked about a few schemes, e.g. BharatNet, Sumatibai Sukalikar Udyogini Mahila Sakshamikaran Yojana, and names-chairman of 15th Finance Commission-N K Singh, Dhirendra Pal Singh who is the Chairman of UGC, Paryatan Parv between 5th to 27th October, etc. All these questions were easy and scoring and were from the last 7-8 months news articles.
Q.1) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the options given :
III. Carl Ritter
A B C D
1) II III I IV
2) IV II III I
3) III IV II I
4) I III IV II
Source : https://www.britannica.com/biography/Carl-Ritter, https://www.amazon.in/Humboldts-Cosmos-Alexander-Humboldt-American/dp/1531810438, https://books.google.co.in/books/about/Geograf%C3%ADa_humana.html?id=0tQvtQEACAAJ&redir_esc=y
Q.2) Examine the following statements and identify the correct statement/s :
Statement ‘A’ : Within 24 hours the Earth rotates in 360o longitudes.
Statement ‘B’ : The Earth requires four minutes to cross the one degree longitude.
1) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
2) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are incorrect
3) Statement ‘A’ is correct but statement ‘B’ is incorrect
4) Statement ‘A’ is incorrect but statement ‘B’ is correct
Q.3) Which of the following relief features is not an effect of internal forces of the Earth?
3) Residual Mountain
4) Rift Valley
Q.4) Select the proper option from the following figures of ‘Relief Features’ created by the volcanic eruption:
Q.5) Find out the correct sequence of planetary winds found from the equator to pole.
1) Westerlies, Trade Winds, Polar Winds
2) Trade winds, Westerlies, Polar winds
3) Trade winds, Polar winds, Westerlies
4) Polar winds, Westerlies, Trade winds
Source : https://www.eoas.ubc.ca/courses/atsc113/sailing/met_concepts/09-met-winds/9a-global-wind-circulations/
Q.6) Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion [A] and the other labeled as Reason [R], Select your answer from the following options.
Assertion [A] : Oceanic salinity is low in the equatorial region.
Reason [R] : Equatorial region is characterized by heavy rainfall, cloudiness and humidity.
1) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
2) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
3) [A] is true but [R] is false
4) [A] is false but [R] is true
Q.7) Which of the following is not a type of chemical weathering ?
Source : http://www.agriinfo.in/?page=topic&superid=4&topicid=249
Q.8) Identify the correct statement/s from the following :
Statement ‘A’ : The weight of water vapour per unit volume of air in specific temperature is called relative humidity.
Statement ‘B’ : Specific humidity is the ratio of air water vapour conent to its water vapour capacity at a given temperature.
1) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are correct
2) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are incorrect
Source :https://graphical.weather.gov/definitions/defineRH.html, https://www.britannica.com/science/specific-humidity
Q.9) Identify the correct statement/s from the following :
Assertion [A] : The isotherm lines remain almost parallel to one another and parallel to latitudes on oceanic surfaces.
Reason [R] : Temperatures at maritime locations are free from effect of elevation.
3) [A] is true but [R] is false
Q.10) Consider the following statements and select the correct option from the following :
Answer Options :
1) Statements a and b are correct
2) Statements a and c are correct
3) Statements b,c and d are correct
4) Statements a,b and c are correct
Q.11) In developing countries the population pyramid has a
1) Narrow base and wide top
2) Wide base and wide top
3) Wide base and narrow top
4) Narrow base and narrow top
Source : https://opinionfront.com/different-types-of-population-pyramids-explained
Q.12) Examine the following statements and select the correct option :
Statement ‘A’ : Some land area of India is situated in the northern hemisphere and some in the southern hemisphere.
Statement ‘B’ : The extension of India from north to south is approximately more than 7500 km
1) Statement ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are correct
3) Statements ‘A’ is correct but statement ‘B’ is incorrect
Q.13) Examine the following statements and select the correct option :
Statement ‘A’ : Himalayan rivers cross many Himalayan ranges and the Shivalik Hills and enter into the plain area.
Statement ‘B’ : Peninsular rivers flow through the rift valleys created by faults.
Source : https://www.importantindia.com/10100/major-rivers-originating-from-the-himalayas/
Q.14) The rainfed and rain shadow areas are the characteristics of
1) Cyclonic rainfall
2) Conventional rainfall
3) Orographic rainfall
4) Thermal rainfall
Source : https://www.worldatlas.com/articles/what-is-orographic-precipitation.html
Q.15) Which region has the following characteristics?
1) North-Indian Plain Region
2) Peninsular Plateau
3) Coastal Plains
4) Himalayan Region
Q.16) Match the following Pollutants and their Mediums as per the UNEP documents :
a b c d
1) I II III IV
2) IV III II I
3) III I IV II
4) III I II IV
Q.17) Which of the following days is designated as World Ozone Day by the U.N. General Assembly?
1) 1st June
2) 5th June
3) 1st September
4) 16th September
Source : http://www.un.org/en/events/ozoneday/
Q.18) Which of the following greenhouse gases is entirely produced by human activities?
2) Carbon dioxide
3) Nitrous oxide
Source : https://helpsavenature.com/causes-greenhouse-effect
Q.19) The transitional area between two living organisms is known as
Source 19: https://www.britannica.com/science/ecotone
Q.20) The impact of humans on global climate has been induced by which of the following ?
1) Only d
2) Only c and d
3) Only b, c and d
4) All of the above
Q.21) At which of the following places was an iron and steel factory not started during the Second Five Year Plan?
1) Only a and b
2) Only c
3) Only d
4) Only a and d
Source : http://planningcommission.gov.in/plans/planrel/fiveyr/2nd/2planch19.html
Q.22) Which of the following is/are not the supply-side factor/s responsible for inflation?
4) Only c
Source : https://www.economicshelp.org/blog/2006/economics/cost-push-inflation-2/
Q.23) Which of the following factors are not responsible for poverty ?
1) Only a and c
2) Only a, c and d
3) Only b and d
4) Only b and c
Source :Logical question
Q.24) “Absence of minimum income to get the minimum needs of life” is concerned with which of the following types of poverty?
1) Absolute poverty
2) Relative poverty
3) Both the above
4) None of the above
Q.25) Identify the correct statement/s in context of the Food Security Act, 2013.
1)Both a and b are correct
2) Both a and b are incorrect
3) Only a is correct
4) Only b is correct
Q.26) What is the percentage of Indian population in the population of the world according to the Indian Census Report, 2011?
1) 16.5 percent
2) 17.3 percent
3) 17.5 percent
4) 17.7 percent
Q.27) Which of the following population policies decide the minimum marriage age as 21 years for males and 18 years for females?
1) National Population Policy, 1976
2) National Population Policy, 1977
3) National Population Policy, 2000
4) Population Projections [2001 – 2026]
Source : http://paa2010.princeton.edu/papers/101217
Q.28) Which of the following programmes is/are started by the Government of India for the purpose of ‘Social Security’?
2) Only b and c
3) Only c
4) All of the above
Q.29) Which of the following factors is/are concerned in the calculation of Green National Income [GNI]?
2) Only a
3) Only a and b
Q.30) Which of the following are measured in Millennium Development Goals [MDGs] ?
2) Only c and
3) Only a, b and c
Source : http://www.who.int/topics/millennium_development_goals/about/en/
Q.31) Which of the following schemes are included in women and child development schemes?
Q.32) In any poverty reduction strategy there is a need to incorporate both self-employment and wage employment , because
3) Only c and d
Q.33) The concept of Human Poverty Index [HPI] was introduced in the
1) Human Development Report, 1990
2) Human Development Report, 1997
3) Human Development Report, 2001
4) Human Development Report, 2014
Q.34) The phenomenal growth of ‘census towns’ is a challenge as these towns
1) a, b and c
2) Only a and b
3) Only b and c
4) Only a and c
Q.35) Which of the following was the aim of the Twelfth Five Year Plan [2012 – 17]?
1) To achieve economic growth and stable development
2) To achieve faster growth and development
3) To achieve faster and more inclusive growth
4) To achieve faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth
Q.36) Which of the following describes the Geostationary Orbit [GEO] correctly?
1) Altitude of 20,000 km above the sea level and the orbital period is 12 hours.
2) Altitude of 36,000 km above the sea level and the orbital period is 24 hours
3) Altitude of 400 km above the sea level and the orbital period is 90 minutes.
Q.37) In Fresnel’s Biprism, the value of wavelength (λ) depends upon
1) The distance between two coherent sources
2) The fringe width
3) The distance between slit and eyepiece of telescope
Q.38) What focal length should the spectacles have for a person for whom the least distance of distinct vision is 50 cm?
1) 50cm, concave
2) 50 cm, convex
3) 25 cm, concave
4) 25 cm, convex
Source : https://clay6.com/qa/69306/what-focal-length-should-the-reading-spectacles-have-for-a-person-whose-nea
Q.39) A resistor of 10Ω connected across a cell of emf 12V, draws the current of 1.1 A . Find the internal resistance of the cell.
1) 10 Ω
2) 0.1 Ω
3) 10.9 Ω
4) 0.91 Ω
Source : http://physicsnet.co.uk/a-level-physics-as-a2/current-electricity/electromotive-force-and-internal-resistance/
Q.40) Two parallel slits 1 millimeter apart are placed 1 metre away from the screen. What is the fringe separation due to interference effect, when a beam of wavelength 500 nanometres is incident on them ?
1) 5.0 mm
2) 0.5 mm
3) 5.0 cm
4) 0.05 mm
Source : https://clay6.com/qa/69726/two-slits-are-1-mm-apart-and-the-screen-is-placed-1-m-away-what-is-the-frin
Q.41) A steam engine delivers 5.4 x 108 J of work per minute by taking 3.6 x 109 J of heat from its source. What is the efficiency of the engine?
Q.42) In some trees, copper deficiency may cause blisters and deep slits in the bark from which exudes gum. This disease is known as
2) White bud
Q.43) The maximum yield of ATP from the complete oxidation of sucrose via aerobic respiration is
Q.44) The binomial system of classification was given by
1) Carolus Linnaeus
2) Bentham and Hooker
Q.45) According to Sir J.C Bose, an Indian Scientist , ascent of sap takes place due to the _______ of living cells of the innermost cortical layer.
1) pulsatory activity
2) transpiration pull theory
3) cohesion theory
4) root pressure theory
Q.46) Which of the following theories are related to evolution of life?
1) a, b and d
2) a, b and c
3) a, c and d
Source : http://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/biology/4-main-theories-of-evolution-explained-with-diagram-and-tables-biology/27220
Q.47) Which of the following are hormones of the pituitary gland?
1) a and b
2) b and c
3) a, b and d
4) a, b and c
Source : https://www.pituitary.org.uk/information/hormones/
Q.48) The skeletal system performs which of the following functions?
2) b, c and d
3) a, c and d
Q.49) Gregor Mendel is often referred to as the Father of Genetics , since he first enunciated the principles of heredity .His experimental material was
1) Fruit Fly
2) Bread mould
3) Pea Plant
4) Rhesus monkey
Source : https://www2.palomar.edu/anthro/mendel/mendel_1.htm
Q.50) Wood grain alcohol is nothing but
3) Benzyl alcohol
4) Isopropyl alcohol
Q.51) Wood grain alcohol is nothing but
Q.52) Water is often treated with chlorine to
1) Increase oxygen content
2) Kill germs
3) Remove sedimentation
4) Remove insoluble impurities
Q.53) Corrosion takes place as a result of
1) Only physical reactions
2) Only chemical reactions
3) Both  and 
4) None of the above
Q.54) Natural gas mainly consists of
Q.55) Fats and oils belong to the naturally occurring group of compounds called
Q.56) On 26th November, 1949, which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India came into effect?
1) a,b and c
3) a and c
4) a and b
Q.57) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India pronounce the verdict that the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament?
1) Shankari Prasad vs Union of India
2) Golaknath vs State of Punjab
3) Kesavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala
4) Minerva Mills Ltd. Vs Union of India
Q.58) Which one of the following statements about the Vice-President of India is incorrect?
Q.59) Consider the following statements :
1) Statements a, b and c are correct
2) Statements b, c and d are correct
3) Statements a, c and d are correct
4) Statements c and d are correct
Q.60) Recommendations of the Sixth Report of Second Administrative Reforms Commission on Local Government are
4) a, b , c and d
Q.61) Which of the following directive principles did not form part of the original Constitution and were added through constitutional amendments?
Sources: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth Chapter 8 Page 8.3
Q.62) Which of the following statements are correct?
Q.63) Which of the following regarding Zero Hour are correct?
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth Chapter 22 Parliament Page 22.14
Q.64) Consider the following statements
Which of the following is/are correct?
Q.65) Which article of the constitution provides that it shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language, to develop it so that it may become the ‘Lingua Franca’ of the composite culture of India?
Q.66) The second schedule of the Indian Constitution mentions salary, allowances and other privileges of certain officials. Which one of the following is not among those officials?
Q.67) Which one of the following statements is/are correct?
Q.68) Select the correct statement/s
Q.69) Select the correct statement/s
Q.70) Arrange in appropriate order (formation of the states)
Q.71) Out of the following statements about the regulatory body in the field of higher education, which is not correct?
Source: There are other regulatory institutions as well. eg- AICTE. Other statements are correct. http://www.thehindu.com/education/the-heera-conundrum/article19384415.ece
Q.72) Choose the correct statement/s from the following
Q.73) Which of the following statements is incorrect about India’s ‘Act East Policy’?
Q.74) Consider the following statements about ‘Jnanpith (Gyanpith)’ Awards:
Which of the above statements are correct?
Q.75) Who is the Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission?
Q.76) Which of the following statements about Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA) is false?
Q.77) Dr. Dhriendra Pal Singh was recently in the news. What is not true about him?
Q.78) In Maharashtra, Dr. Abdul Kalam Ahar Yojana is related with?
Q.79) Match the Pairs:
A Shashi Tharoor I Ghachar Ghochar
B Raghuram Rajan II The End of Karma
C Somini Sengupta III I do What I do
D Vivek Shanbhag IV An Era of Darkness
Q.80) Kazuo Ishiguro is awarded with nobel prize in literature in 2017. Which of the following are not his works?
Source: https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/4929.Kafka_on_the_Shore https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/11297.Norwegian_Wood
Q.81) Select the incorrect statement.
Q.82) Choose the incorrect statement.
Source: http://www.who.int/campaigns/world-health-day/2017/campaign-essentials/en/ http://www.who.int/mental_health/world-mental-health-day/2017/en/
Q.83) From 5th October to 25th October 2017 – this period of 21 days was celebrated by Government of India as
Q.84) ‘Bharat Net’ is the flagship programme of the Government of India
Q.85) Government of Maharashatra’s Sumatibai Sukalikar Udyogini Mahila Sakshamikaran Yojna is related to:
Q.86) Who form the following Gupta kings took the title of Mahendraditya?
Q.87) Match the following:
A Takshan I Carpenter
B Bhagadhuga II Collector of Taxes
C Kshattri III Chamberlain
D Vidhata IV An assembly in both men and women participated
Q.88) Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer option:
Q.89) Dasharadhanya Yuddha (war) was fought between whom from the following?
Q.90) Which of the following edicts have information about Samrat Ashoka’s Dhamma?
Q.91) Match the four provinces of Chandragupta Maurya’s kingdom with their capitals
a Uttarapatha I Patliputra
b Paschim Patha II Suvarnagiri
c Purva Path III Ujjayini
d Dakshin Path IV Takshashila
Q.92) Identify the person from the following description:
Q.93) Identify the person from the description given below:
Q.94) Identify the person form the description given below:
Q.95) Which of the following provisions was not involved in the treaty of Shrirangapattana between Tipu Sultan and the British?
Q.96) ______ had also founded ‘Free India Centres’ in Rome and Paris.
Q.97) Who is described in the following sentences?
Q.98) Consider the following statements, and choose the correct answer statements.
Q.99) Name the social reformer described in following statements:
Q.100) Name the social reformer described in the following sentences:
Download MPSC Paper 1
S.1-100) Choose the correct alternative.
Read the following passage and answer the questions from 1 to 5 :
Adverse Impacts of Green Revolution
There can be no doubt that the first Green Revolution lifted the country out of a situation immediately after independence when the prospects of famine and scarcity of food commodities loomed large. The rapidly expanding population could have made matters all the more worse. It was the Green Revolution that helped tackle the food security issue with increased agricultural productivity.
However, the Green Revolution did have some adverse impacts too which are being felt in the long run. Since the emphasis was mainly on cereals like rice and wheat, there was a loss of productivity as far as pulses, fruits and vegetables were concerned. The present rate of fruit and vegetable production will not be able to cope with the future demand as the population is increasing rapidly.
Besides, production of the same type of cereals such as rice and wheat year after year gradually decreased soil fertility making it difficult for pulses and other vegetables to grow Monoculture [the cultivation of same crop variety for a prolonged period] also led to breakdown of the plant’s resistance to pests and diseases which is an unwelcome offshoot of the first Green Revolution.
Another criticism often directed at the first Green Revolution is the indiscriminate use of fertilizers and pesticides that is today threatening the agri-future of the country. Excessive and inappropriate use of fertilizers and pesticides led to widespread environmental damage polluting waterways, poisoning agricultural workers and killing beneficial insects and other wildlife.
The first Green Revolution also did not take care of certain areas like rainfed, hilly, coastal, dry land and arid zones which could be developed properly for production of exportable items like fruits , honey, mushroom, milk, meat, etc. Critics of the Green Revolution have also argued that owners of large farms were the main adopters of new technologies because of their better access to irrigation water, fertilizers, seeds and credit. Small farmers were either unaffected or harmed because the Green Revolution resulted in lower product prices, higher input prices and efforts by landlords to increase rent or force tenants off the land. The Green Revolution also encouraged unnecessary mechanization , thereby pushing down rural wages and employment.
Faulty irrigation practices also led to salt build-up and eventual abandonment of some of the best farming lands. Groundwater levels have retreated in areas where more water is being pumped for irrigation than can be replenished by the rains.
Q.1) The first Green Revolution did not take care of which of the following areas?
a. Rainfed areas
b. Coastal areas
c. Fertile soil areas
d. Arid areas
Answer Options :
1) Only a and c
2) Only c and d
3) Only a, b and d
4) All of the above
Q.2) Which of the following criticisms of the first Green Revolution is/are correct?
a. Polluting waterways
b. Polluting air
c. Poisoning agricultural workers
d. Killing beneficial insects and wildlife
1) Only a and b
2) Only c and d
3) Only b
4) Only a, c and d
Q.3) Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Green Revolution?
a. There was emphasis mainly on cereals like rice and wheat.
b. There was a loss of productivity of pulses, fruits and vegetables.
c. There was emphasis mainly on pulses, fruits and vegetables cultivation.
d. There was a gradual decrease in soil fertility year after year.
1) Only a, b and d
2) Only c
3) Only a and c
4) All of the above
Q.4) Which of the following impacts on environment during the Green Revolution is/are correct?
a. Faulty irrigation practices
b. Increase of salt in soil
c. Abandonment of some of the best farming lands
d. Groundwater levels have retreated
Answer Options :
1) Only a
2) Only b and c
3) Only a, b and d
4) All of the above
Q.5) Which of the following adverse impacts of the Green Revolution is/are correct?
a. Production of same type of cereals year after year decreased soil fertility.
b. Loss of soil fertility made it difficult for pulses and vegetables to grow.
c. Monoculture led to breakdown of plant’s resistance to pests and diseases.
1) Only a
2) Only a and b
3) Only a and c
4) All of the above
Read the following passage and answer the questions from 6 to 10 :
‘Communication Technology’ has been the single most important economic force shaping all societies over the past half century with geography; national borders and time zones becoming irrelevant with ‘the new communication revolution’. In today’s changing world, global electronic commerce is growing so fast and creating new opportunities for trade that no country can afford to miss it. Such explosive innovations and developments in science and technology have deeply influenced the direction and trends in international trade.
The role of international trade in the process of economic development is widely recognized. International trade brings a variety of static and dynamic gains and thus increases the capacity for development. Larger the volume of trade, greater is the potential for development. Economic history finds success stories of various countries, which were relatively underdeveloped at one time but were converted to the category of developed countries through foreign trade.
Trade is an old as human society itself , as no man, and more so, no society, can every be self-sufficient. In ancient times trade was in the form of barter, but afterwards, not only did trade change from barter to money, but from a stroke of a computer keyboard, people could enter into a transaction not only in goods and services but also in stocks and bonds, financial lending and national and international currency dealing from one corner to another corner of the world.
Export promotion belong one of the main facets of fast and steady growth, considerable attention has been given to export incentives since the nineteen sixties. It has been realized that “export growth is not a luxury” for India. It is a prerequisite for adequate foreign exchange earnings, to maintain the tempo of economic development without sacrificing the country’s self-reliance. However, exports can play an effective role “as an engine of economic growth” in Indian conditions.
Export trade is a vital variable in the Indian economic situation. It plays a paramount role in Indian economic development. It is indeed exports that activate the use of unexploited natural and human resources , break the limitations of the domestic market, strengthen and organize the stagnant economy and minimize the dependence on foreign aid, which, since long is believed to accelerate the pace of economic transformation.
Exports are a key factor in the development process of any economy. The logical grounds can be considered in terms of both, the direct and indirect gains of exports in a developing economy like India.
Q.6) Geographical , national borders and time zones are becoming irrelevant because of
1) Communication technology
2) The new communication revolution
3) Information communication technology
4) Digital tools
Q.7) The potential of development depends on the
1) Direction of trade
2) Import of trade
3) Volume of trade
4) None of the above
Q.8) Trade is as old as a human society because
1) No one is self-sufficient
2) Greed of development
3) Wants are unlimited
4) Resources are limited
Q.9) Due to computer technology, people have also entered into the trade of
1) Goods and services
2) Human resources
3) Natural resources
4) National and international currencies
Q.10) Choose the appropriate title for the passage
1) Export Promotion
2) Communication Technology
3) Communication Revolution
4) Foreign Trade and Economic Development
Read the following passage and answer the questions from 11 to 15 :
The wonders of light can be enjoyed in a variety of ways. Mirrors and lenses are part of them. Plane mirrors are well known to us. Concave and convex mirrors are used to converge and diverge the light as per need. The focal length of the spherical mirror is half of its radius of curvature. The ratio of the product and sum of object distance and image distance is the focal length of the mirror. Convex and concave lenses are also used for the same purpose as above. The ratio of the product and difference of object distance and image distance is the focal length of the lens.
According to new Cartesian sign convention, the measurements towards the left from the pole or centre and below the axis are taken as negative, while those towards the right and above the axis are taken as positive. The ability of lenses to converge or diverge is their power in the units of dioptre is the reciprocal of focal length in metres.
In general, mirrors and lenses are used to obtain a magnified image relative to the object. Magnification is the ratio of image size to object size or image distance to object distance. Mirrors and lenses are used in torches and headlights, flood lights, projector lamps, solar devices and furnaces, cameras, spectrometers, simple microscopes, compound microscopes, telescopes, spectacles, etc. The human eye is a natural optical instrument. Light enters the thin cornea, iris, pupil of variable diameter to control and regulate light with the tendency of adaptation. Behind the pupil there is a biconvex crystalline lens having the power of accommodation. Finally a real and inverted image is formed on the retina. The distance of distinct vision is 25 cm from the normal eye.
But various refractive defects like myopia, hypermetropia and presbyopia arise due to non-relaxation or weak action of ciliary muscles, high or low converging power of lens, increase or decrease in distance between lens and retina, lengthening or shortening of the eyeball. These defects can be corrected by using suitable concave or convex lenses. Both the defects may appear simultaneously, in such cases, bifocal lens should be used.
Q.11) An object 3 cm in size is placed 20 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 24 cm. at what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp image ? Also, what is the size of the image ?
Distance of screen Size of image
1) – 30 cm + 4.5 cm
2) – 30 cm – 4.5 cm
3) + 4.5 cm – 30 cm
4) – 4.5 cm + 30 cm
Q.12) What focal power should the reading spectacles have for a person for whom the least distance of distinct vision is 50 cm ?
1) 0.02 Dioptre
2) 0.2 Dioptre
3) 2 Dioptre
4) 20 Dioptre
Q.13) In the list of the following instruments, mirrors and lenses are used. Classify them accordingly.
(iii) Compound microscopes
(iv) Projection lamps
(vi) Simple microscopes
1) (i), (iv), (v) (ii), (iii), (vi)
2) (iii), (iv), (ii) (i), (vi), (v)
3) (i), (ii), (vi) (iii), (iv), (v)
4) (ii), (iii), (vi) (i), (iv), (v)
Q.14) A person whose left eye is myopic and right eye is hypermetropic, his spectacles should have right and left lenses to be ______ and _______ respectively.
1) convex, bifocal
2) concave, bifocal
3) concave, convex
4) convex, concave
Q.15) A card sheet divided into squares, each of size 1 mm x 1 mm is being viewed at a distance of 9 cm through a convex lens of focal length 9 cm held close to the eye. The squares on the card sheet will be observed to be of size
1) 10 mm x 10 mm
2) 10 mm2
3) 10 cm2
4) 1 mm2
Read the following passage and answer the questions from 16 to 20 :
Flowers serve as an excellent offering to God. They are an invaluable aid for personal make up and a source of inspiration to poets.
Flowers are the structure of sexual reproduction in plants. After seed germination, the plant grows continuously to its full maturity. At a certain point in life, the plant switches over to the reproductive phase and starts bearing flowers. The stalk of the flower is referred to as pedicel. In general, four types of organs are involved in constituting a flower. The outermost green whorl having sepals is calyx, and inner to the calyx is a whorl of brightly coloured petals, ie. Corolla. Next to it, the whorl is of stamens which is collectively called and roecium; representing the male sex organs. The centre of the flower is occupied by carpels, ie. Gynoecium which is represented by the female reproductive whorl . Depending on the presence of stamens and carpels, the flower may be a male , female or hermaphrodite flower. In flowers, pollen grains are produced by stamens in the anther lobe. Then mature pollen grains are transferred to the stigma leading to successful pollination. The stigma provides required natural conditions for in-vivo germination of pollen grains.
Various agencies are involved in the transfer of pollen grains to the stigma; they may be biotic or abiotic. The biotic agencies are bees, insects, birds, bats, ants, animals , etc. and abiotic agencies are wind and water.
The process of pollination is a very basic and important for fruit and seed setting. Likewise, it is important for the conservation of biodiversity. The pollinators and plants are co-evolved during ht course of evolution . Some species need only biotic agents for pollination without which plants will become extinct. In the absence of successful pollination, the plant reproduction process will stop completely. The is why it is necessary to conserve the plants and their pollinators too. If pollination stops due to any reason, the process of seed setting will cease.
Q.16) As per the involvement of various parts of a flower in the process of sexual reproduction , which one of the following cannot be neglected?
Q.17) After the transfer of pollen grains, which floral organ acts as a site for pollen tube germination?
Q.18) When the honey-bees visit from one flower to another, they carry out the process of
4) All of the above
Q.19) The process of sexual reproduction is said to be successful only when
1) Pollen grains land perfectly on the stigma
2) The Pollen tube reaches the ovary
3) There is formation of seeds in fruit
4) A biotic agency is involved in pollination
Q.20) During the course of evolution, plants and their pollinators evolved
3) Plants first and then pollinators
4) Pollinators first and then plants
Read the following passage and answer the questions from 21 to 25 :
Normally rainwater has a pH of 5.6 due to the presence of H⊕ ions formed by the reaction of rainwater with CO2 present in the atmosphere.
H2O(l) + CO2(g) ⇌ H2CO3 (aq)
H2CO3(aq) ⇌ H⊕ (aq) + HCO3⊝ (aq)
When the pH of the raindrops below 5.6 it is called acid rain. Acid rain is a by-product of a variety of human activities that emit the oxides of S and N in the atmosphere. Burning of fossil fuels such as coal and oil in power stations and furnaces or petrol and diesel in motor engines produce SO2 and NO2 after oxidation and their reaction with H2O are major contributors to acid rain. Acid rain is harmful for agriculture, trees and plants as it dissolves and washes away nutrients needed for their growth. It causes respiratory ailments in human beings and animals. It affects the aquatic ecosystem. It corrodes water pipes resulting in the leaching of heavy metals such as Fe, Pb and Cu into the drinking water. Acid water damages buildings and other structures made up of stone or metal. The Taj Mahal in India has been affected by acid rain.
Q.21) Rain is called acid rain, when its pH value is
4) Less than 5.6
Q.22) When H2O (l) reacts with CO2 (g) it gives
Q.23) Burning of fossil fuels and petroleum gives
1) SO and NO
2) SO2 and NO2
3) S and N2
4) NH3 and SO2
Q.24) Acid rain is harmful to plants because
1) It gives nutrients
2) Nutrients are added as a supplement
3) It washes away the nutrients
4) Nutrients will remain as they are
Q.25) The Taj Mahal in India has been affected by
1) Heavy rain
2) Acid rain
3) Constant rain
4) Smaller rain
Read the following passage and answer the questions from 26 to 30 :
Arun Tiwari, requested me to share my reminiscences with him, so that he could record them. He was someone who had been working in my laboratory since 1982, but I had never really known him well until the February of 1987 when I visited him at the Intensive Coronary Care Unit of the Nizam’s Institute of Medical Sciences in Hyderabad. He was a mere 32 – year old, but was fighting valiantly for his life. I asked him if there was anything he wanted me to do for him. “Give me your blessings , Sir, “he said, “so that I may have a longer life and can complete at least one of your projects”.
The young man’s dedication moved me and I prayed for his recovery all night. The Lord answered my prayers and Tiwari was able to get back to work in a month. He did an excellent job in helping to realize the Akash missile airframe from scratch within the short space of three years. He then took up the task of chronicling my story. Over the last year, he patiently transcribed the bits and pieces of my story and converted them into a fluent narrative. He also went through my personal library meticulously and selected from among the pieces of poetry those I had marked while reading, and included them in the text.
This story is an account, I hope, not just of my personal triumphs and tribulations but of the successes and setbacks of the science establishment in modern India, struggling to establish itself in the technological forefront. It is the story of national aspiration and of co-operative endeavour. And , as I see it, the saga of India’s search for scientific self-sufficiency and technological competence is a parable for our times.
Each individual creature on this beautiful planet is created by God to fulfil a particular role. Whatever I have achieved in life is through His help, and an expression of His will. He showered His grace on me through some outstanding teachers and colleagues, and when I pay my tributes to these fine persons, I am merely praising His glory. All these rockets and missiles are His work through a small person called APJ Abdul Kalam.
Q.26) The author of the above passage is
1) Ashok Tiwari
2) Can’t be recognised
3) APJ Abdul Kalam
4) A doctor in Hyderabad
Q.27) The passage suggests that Ashok Tiwari helped to write a/an
1) Article on Kalam
2) Biography of Kalam
4) Autobiography of Kalam
Q.28) Kalam was a/an [Choose a more complete description from the options]
4) Theist, a scientist and a voracious reader
Q.29) The Akash missile airframe was created in a period of
1) 32 years
2) 3 years
3) 2 years
4) 5 years
Q.30) Arun Tiwari suffered from a/an
1) Heart-related disease
2) Incurable disease
3) Type of cancer
Read the following passage and answer the questions from 31 to 35 :
To help the farmers, the Agricultural Adjustment Act provided for curtailment of farm output to get rid of the surplus that was depressing prices. Farmers were paid not to raise grain and livestock, fields were left idle and excess produce was destroyed. Considerable criticism was levied against this policy. Millions of people throughout the United States and the world needed food that they could not pay for, and as yet no way of giving it to them was politically feasible.
The government embarked on an ambitious project in the Tennessee River Valley, an area embracing 6,40,000 square miles in the heart of the South. During World War I it had built a dam and ammunition factories at Muscle Shoals, Alabama, which it had tried unsuccessfully to sell when peace came. Now, in 1933, it created the Tennessee Valley Authority, an independent government agency, to put these facilities to work producing fertilizer and electric power. Moreover , the TVA went on to build many additional dams and power plants to improve the region. Cheap electricity was made available; floods that had ravaged the Valley and hindered its development were halted; farm experts were sent to show the people how to conserve their land and achieve greater production. Within a few years, what had once been a backward area was a land of humming industries and prosperous farms.
Looking to the future, the New Deal passed the Social Security Act to protect the people against many of the common forms of distress. The program, which has continued to the present time, includes unemployment insurance for workers, old age pensions, aid to dependent children and benefits to the needy. Federal funds, distributed and administered by the States contribute to much of this security system, which is supported in part by workers, employers and State and local governments.
Q.31) What was the aim of the Social Security Act?
1) To improve relations between workers and employers
2) To provide enough water
3) To bring about prosperity
4) To protect people against common forms of distress
Q.32) What was assumed to be responsible for the decline of prices?
1) Idle fields
2) Surplus farm output
3) People could not pay for food
4) The New Deal
Q.33) Why was the Agricultural Adjustment Act criticized?
1) The Act curtailed farm output but people needed food
2) The Act could not stop the Great Depression
3) The Act gave away food but people did not pay for it
Q.34) Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
1) It was not politically viable to give food to the needy people.
2) TVA built the ammunition factory in Alabama during World War I
3) Public education about land conservation resulted in prosperity.
4) Social Security Act continues to protect people.
Q.35) The Tennessee Valley Authority [TVA]
1) Was an independent government agency
2) Built dams all over the United States after 1933
3) Provided employment insurance
4) Is supported by workers and employers
Read the following passage and answer the questions from 36 to 40 :
World Distribution of Human Race
All members of a racial group, though each one of us has one head, two arms, two legs , two eyes , two ears and so on, each one presents a different appearance.
A scientific classification of races should be based on measurable physical features that are inherited from ancestors. The features considered important for classification of races include – colour of skin, stature, shape of the head, face, nose, eyes, type of hair, etc.
Skin Colour – Skin colour makes the most apparent difference between people belonging to different races. On the bases of skin colour, the people of the world are classified as White, Black and Yellow. White – skinned people are found in North America, black in Africa and yellow in China, Japan and Mongolia.
Stature – Stature being an easily measurable character can be used as one of the bases for classification of human population . Human population on the basis of stature is divided into the group of short, medium and tall people. Generally people in Europe and North America are tallest and Mongoloid people are the shortest.
Shape of the Head – Like stature, the shape of the head is a measurable parameter. Long headed people are found in Europe and North America, while medium to small headed people are found in Africa and Asia.
Shape of the Nose – Width and height of nose is also an important criterion for identification of various races. People with long and narrow noses are found in European countries while the Africans are classified as people with broad noses. The Kajji of the Niger Delta in West Africa are the people with the broadest noses among the Negroes while the Swedes have the narrowest nostrils.
Shape of the Face – The facial appearance of a person is also considered an indicator of his race. The face may be long or broad. It is generally observed that the faces of the Mongoloid, Chinese and Polish people are broader while Scandinavians or the Nordic have relatively narrower faces.
Eyes – Colour and form of eyes is an indicator of certain racial groups. People are classified on the basis of the colour of the eyes as dark-eyed, gray-eyed, or blue-eyed people. Dark – eyed are found in Africa, Gray – eyed in Mongolia, China and Japan and Blue – eyed in North America and Europe.
Hair Form and Colour – Form and colour of hair vary from race to race. On the basis of the form the hair can be classified as straight long hair or short wooly hair and wavy hair. The Caucasoid people have wavy hair, the Negroid have wooly hair and Mongoloid have straight hair.
Q.36) Which of the following is the skin colour of the Mongolian people?
Q.37) To identify the different races, which features among the following are considered?
1) Only a and d
3) Only a, b and c
Q.38) Which features of the human race are easily measurable?
1) Only b and c
3) Only a, b and d
4) Only b, c and d
Q.39) Which option indicates the features of the North America people?
1) White skinned , tallest , long headed and blue-eyed
2) White-skinned, blue-eyed and straight – haired
3) Long headed, tallest and wooly hair
4) Broadest nose, shortest and dark-eyed
Q.40) Which people have broader faces?
1) Mongoloid and Caucasoid
2) Mongoloid and Japanese
3) Chinese and Mongoloid
4) Caucasoid and Japanese
Read the following passage and answer the questions from 46 to 50 :
In the Soumya case the Supreme Court acquitted the accused for murder but convicted him to life imprisonment for rape, which Justice Katju criticized in his writing. The subsequent incidents were wholly unwarranted. The court invited the former judge to defend his statements in person, then chose to take umbrage at his writing, issued a contempt notice against him, and then asked security staff to escort him outside the premises. Why did the court have to go through this theatrical public confrontation, when it could have issued a contempt notice on the basis of the blog post alone?
The second aspect is even more troubling: the relevance of contempt law in a free society where criticism of the judiciary is inevitable. Judges have vast powers and people will not remain silent about the exercise of such power. Just as decisions of other branches of government attract criticism, judicial decisions would also invite the same.
The Supreme Court has held that for the judiciary to function effectively, the dignity and authority of the courts must be respected and protected at all costs. But the need to respect the “authority and dignity of the court” is borrowed from a bygone era; it has no basis in a democratic system. The law of contempt should be employed only to enable the court to function, not to prevent criticism. In many countries, contempt jurisdiction is regarded as archaic and exercised sparingly. In the US, courts no longer use contempt to silence comments on judges or legal matters. The First Amendment to the US Constitution forbids imposition of contempt sanctions on a newspaper.
The English position is best demonstrated by the Spycatcher’s case in the late 1980s. After the House of Lords delivered the Spycatcher judgement, the Daily Mirror published an upside-down photograph of the Law Lords captioned, “You Old Fools” . But no contempt action was initiated against the newspaper.
Q.46) The writer feels that criticism of judiciary is inevitable because
1) Only a
4) Only a, b and c
Q.47) Umbrage means
1) Only a, b and c
3) Only a
Q.48) ‘Upside down’ means
Q.49) Which analogy was used for the judges in the Spycatcher’s case?
1) House of Lords
2) Contempt Jurisdiction
3) Old Fools
4) Law Lordship
Q.50) The Supreme Court invited Justice Katju to defend his statements ; but then, what did the court do?
2) Only b and d
Q.51) Study the following observations noted by the author with respect to the “Make in India” initiative: India’s labour laws and labour quality simply do not meet the needs of high quality industrial production. For example, a factory or enterprise with more than 100 workers must get permission, rarely given, to retrench workers. This encourages companies to think small, not thinking big. In addition, out skilled and unskilled labour does not have the capabilities needed in modern production. Labour is poorly educated and does not have discipline for the factory floor. Not surprisingly, worker productivity is the lowest in India amongst emerging markets and major South – east Asian countries.
Select the appropriate interpretation/s with respect to the above information.
1) None of the statements is logically consistent with the given information
2) None but c conform to the given information.
3) Only c and d are logically consistent with the given information.
4) Only a and b comply with the given information
Q.52) Study the following statements :
If a whimsical dictator presses the missile button, the Third World War thus ensuing will end quickly with the possible end of civilization. It is only the hegemony of people like him and the misuse of nuclear power which will trigger this war.
Select the statement from the following options that is the most appropriate inference related to the above statements :
1) All nations are equipped with nuclear weapons for retaliation
2) Though whimsical, the dictator may not like to end civilization.
3) The growth of nuclear power of each nation will destroy civilization very soon.
4) No civilization will be left after the Third World War.
Q.53) Examine the following statements :
Select the most valid conclusion based on the above statements from the following options:
1) There are some white concrete houses with spacious porches in this village
2) There are only concrete houses in this village
3) Most of the concrete houses are built after liberalization
4) Houses that are not built with concrete cannot have spacious porches.
Q.54) Study the three statements and the conclusions given below. Select logically the valid option of conclusions with respect to the statements.
III. Some of these who travel by AC vehicles don’t have health problems
1) b, c and d
4) a, b and d
Q.55) Three criminals were arrested with some goods. During interrogation only one was telling the truth while each one of the other two told the truth and lied alternatively. They said
Ani : Janu broke open the doors. Manu collected the valuables.
Manu : Ani broke open the doors. I collected the valuables.
Janu : I carried the bags out of the shop. Manu broke open the doors.
Who collected the valuables?
4) Either Ani or Janu
Q.56) Study the statements and the conclusions given below. Select logically the valid option of conclusions with respect to the statements.
The Government run company had asked its employees to declare their income and assets , but it has been strongly resisted by the employees union and none of the employee has declared his/her income.
1) Only conclusion I follows
2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Both conclusions I and II follow
4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Q.57) Pia, Dia and Nia made the following statements when questioned about the winner of the race:
Pia : Either Setu or Lalu won the race
Dia : Setu won the race
Nia : Neither Setu nor Lalu won the race.
If only one of the persons is always a liar, then who won the race?
3) Both Setu and Lalu
4) Neither Setu nor Lalu
Q.58) Lucy has 10 less than twice the sum of Zeenat and Jaya’s coconuts. Jaya has twice as many coconuts as Zeenat. If Lucy were to give 15 coconuts to Zeenat and 5 coconuts to Jaya, Zeenat and Jaya would each have half the number of coconuts Lucy had originally.
Select the option which shows how many coconuts Zeenat had originally.
Q.59) Two bust tickets from city A to city B and three bus tickets from city A to city C cost a total of Rs.77. But three tickets from city A to city B and two tickets from city A to city C cost a total of Rs.73. What are the fares of cities B and C from city A respectively?
1) Rs.14 and Rs.23
2) Rs.13 and Rs.17
3) Rs.15 and Rs.14
4) Rs.17 and Rs.13
Q.60) There are four metal rods of lengths 102 cm, 136 cm, 153 cm and 289 cm each. They are all cut into parts having equal maximum length. Select the option showing the total number of parts of all the rods.
Q.61) How many 3-digit numbers can be formed from the digits 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 and 9 which are divisible by 5 and none of the digits is repeated?
Q.62) Select the appropriated option that describes the relation between quantities A and B. Lalu and John are competing in a road race. Lalu completes 3/4th of the race in 2 hours. John completes 2/3rd of the race in 5/8th of the time which Lalu takes to complete 9/10th of the race.
Quantity A Quantity B
Lalu’s Speed John’s Speed
1) Both the quantities are equal
2) Quantity A is smaller
3) Quantity B is smaller
4) Information is insufficient for determining the relation
Q.63) The present ages of Savita and Kavita are in the ratio 3 : 4. After five years the ratio of their ages will be 4 : 5. Find the present ages of Savita and Kavita
1) Savita 20 years and Kavita 15 years
2) Savita 15 years and Kavita 20 years
3) Savita 20 years and Kavita 25 years
4) Savita 25 years and Kavita 20 years
Q.64) Find the greatest possible length of a scale that can be used to measure exactly, three pieces of cloth of the following lengths :
3m, 5m 10 cm , 12m 90 cm
1) 30 cm
2) 60 cm
3) 45 cm
4) 35 cm
Q.65) Figures A and B are square areas. Side of square A is 8 cm long and diagonal of square B is 8 cm long. What is the difference between the two areas?
1) 16 cm2
2) 32 cm2
3) 8 cm2
4) Zero cm2
Q.66) In a row, ‘A’ is on the 11th position from the left and ‘B’ is on the 10th position from the right. If the positions of ‘A’ and ‘B’ are interchanged, then ‘A’ becomes 18th from the left. How many persons are there in the row other than ‘A’ and ‘B’?
Q.67) Reena took a loan of Rs.1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest . If she paid Rs.432 as interest at the end of the loan, what was the rate of interest?
Q.68) If a is 60% of b, b is 40% of c, and c is 20% of d, then what percent of 20a, is 6d?
Q.69) Ram and Shyam are good in hockey and volleyball. Sachin and Ram are good in hockey and baseball. Gaurav and Shyam are good in volleyball and cricket. Sachin, Gaurav and Sagar are good in baseball and football. Then who is good in all – baseball, cricket, volleyball and football?
Q.70) If the code for ‘KAMAL’ is 1626142615’ , then find the code for ‘NO’.
Q.71) If A $ B means A is the father of B; A # B means A is the sister of B; A * B means A is the daughter of B; and A @ B means A is the brother of B, then select the relation chain that indicates R, T and M are siblings?
1) Q $ R @ T * M
2) Q @ R $ T # M
3) Q $ R * T # M
4) Q $ R @ T # M
Q.72) Select the fold of transparent paper sheet X from the given options
Q.74) In the given square, which option will replace the question mark?
Q.75) Study the statements and the conclusions given below. Select logically the valid option of conclusions with respect to the statements.
1) Only A, B and D are correct
2) Only B, C and D are correct
3) Only A and B are correct
4) All are correct
Q.76) While inspecting an Industrial Training Institute you found that the building in one housing colony had a massive board for the ITI, suggesting that the centre occupied the entire space. When you stepped inside the institute, you found that it is operating from a one room flat in the corner. When asked about their office and laboratory that is mandatory for assisting students to get hands on experience, the person in charge claimed that the institute has a lab , and guided you to a scooter garage on the ground floor. This person showed you all certificates of massive infrastructure that are mandatory for an ideal ITI . You will
1) Order the institute to take three years to put together the infrastructure they promised at the time of getting government recognition to avoid suffering of students already admitted.
2) Order de-recognition of the institute to avoid students getting certificates without acquiring the needed experience based skills.
3) Call a meeting of students, parents, teachers and management to sort out problems related to acquisition of expected skills and appoint a committee to monitor educational programmes.
4) Order the management to make arrangements for assisting students immediately for getting the hands-on experience that they need to get jobs without charging extra fees.
Q.77) You are heading the department that is responsible for taking decisions concerned with employing Information and Communications Technology for various purposes. Though most of your subordinates use smartphones, they are against providing online services to general public under the pretext that they should be in touch with them to be familiar with their problems as public servants. You are familiar with their excuses related to this but you are determined to give online public services to reduce corruption, save energy and money, and relieve people from different kinds of harassement. You will
1) Make all needed arrangements related to your goals without considering the opinions of your subordinates
2) Take the initiative for assisting your subordinates to get sensitized with the difficulties faced by public at large due to the indifferent attitude of public servants.
3) Start giving memos when these office bearers make laypersons feel that they are at their mercy and make them pay for this.
4) With the help of several informal meetings with your subordinates, make efforts to form an association to provide services as a responsible and honest public servant.
Q.78) You are in charge of maintaining peace and order in one area where occasional violence erupts in no time. Two factions residing in this area belonging to one religion have a dispute over ownership of the religious structure there. One of the groups having a large number of followers residing in the area is very aggressive and tries to dominate the other faction having a lesser number of members. In the morning the dominant group grabbed ownership of the place and as a result the situation suddenly became very critical. The faction with minority lodged a complaint against the dominating group. To avoid complications you ordered the police officer to arrest the leader of the faction in order to maintain peace. Members of this faction thought that the police force wants to kill their leader in a fake encounter. In the evening a large mob with sticks and flambeaus started walking towards the police station for making an attack to free their leader. You will
1) Ask the police force to be ready to fire at the mob as it being very aggressive might try to burn the station building
2) Assure the group that there won’t be any encounter and their leader is safe and request few members to talk to him
3) Talk to the arrested leader and convince him to announce that he is safe and no complaint is lodged against him by the police.
4) Request the corporator, legislative member and parliament member of the area to help you in handling the situation.
Q.79) You are heading the department that looks after control of pollution in the city. While reading the report, ‘State of Global Air 2017’ it was evident to you that ozone related early deaths are increasing in India. You will
1) Collect related data to know the reality of this problem in your city and then decide a course of action, if necessary, in collaboration with the health department.
2) With the assistance of the transport department of the city, you will devise a plan for supplying reliable public transport for controlling vehicular pollution.
3) Along with developing strategies for controlling vehicular pollution, seek modern systems of managing garbage of all kinds found in the city as well as around the city.
4) With the help of the transport department, control the number of vehicles on the roads each day and organize a good network to transport garbage to a place away from the city.
Q.80) You are occupying the topmost position in your office. Recently two of your subordinates met with accidents and suffered minor injuries on their way to office on different occasions. The leader of their union came to you requesting you to consult a famous vastu expert and make necessary changes in the office premises and avoid these kinds of evil experiences in the future. You know the fact that the human friendly and eco-sensitive premises are designed by an architect who has taken care of climatic and geographical conditions of the area. You will
1) Accept his request to consult the expert and save on expenses that incur due to such accidents in future
2) Call a meeting of all employees for getting familiar with their attitude towards these things and assist them in making a sensible decision on this request.
3) Organise a series of workshops for your employees to help them to understand the futility of such consultations by making them familiar with the facts.
4) Reject this request summarily by telling the person that you don’t believe in such sciences.
MPSC Answer Key 2018 and MPSC Cut Off has been prepared by the team NeoStencil in collaboration with its partner Institutes. The MPSC Prelims Exam 2018 will be conducted on 8th April 2018 for 70 posts of Deputy Chief Executive Officer, Superintendent and others. NeoStencil is the first to launch the MPSC Pre Answer Key 2018 with explanations and sources as soon as the exam ceases, for the benefit of the candidates who would like to get a fair idea of how they performed and check their answers. MPSC Question Paper with Answer Sheet 2018 Answer Key will be helpful to assess your exam performance and check your eligibility for next level.
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Hi Sir please check Q47 paper 2 set B- ans option 3 ( old fools)
ans key of paper 1 of set d is wrong .it is ans key of set d paper1 is exactly similar to set c
i thik it was bymistake.plz make it correct
Thanks for bringing to our notice.
Now table has been updated.
Option 4 pn ahe SOURCE madhe .. Correct it .
kindly check q. 36 and 66 in paper2. i tho
everyone is scoring 200+ ……cuttoff 240+ lagel open cha
Thank you Ma’m/sir, your efforts have been very helpful but kindly check the following ouestions in the explaination
Q 36 – mongolian- yellow skin–hence option 1
Q 55 – if manu always tells the truth, conditions are fulfilled–hence option 3
Q 66 – except a&b is asked–hence option 3
Q 72– it must make a ster–hence option 1..
36, 66 and 72 answers are wrong in paper-2 set B.
Paper 2 set C. Can you make it available as soon as possible?
Paper 2.. most of the answers in answer key are wrong
Could you please share the unswered questions 11, 41-45, 72 in Paper 2 ie CSAT in Set A
Also when would you share tentative cut offs ?
hi shared paper II Set – B question paper on email@example.com, can you please share the answer key
please upload answer key 2nd paper (C set)
Hi Dnyaneshwar Galave,
We don’t have qustion papers for the SET C. If you have, could you please share at firstname.lastname@example.org.
Sir please upload set A questions paper we will check our answers accordingly
For SET B,C,D Answer keys, please share questions papers @ email@example.com
Below comments are of MPSC Prelims 2017 answer key.
For disucussion and suggestion please provide your feedback in the comments section.
I have completed by commerce graduation from YCMOU after 10th SSC by clearing the preparatory examination conducted by YCMOU.
i haven’t completed 12th HSC, (Not Done)
Can i still eligible/apply for the MPSC / UPSCexamination.on the basis of my current graduation done from YCMOU?
What is expected cutoff of Maharashtra engineering services preliminary exam 2017 for obc category?
When.the cutt off for mpsc prelim exam will be displayed .??
Hi sir.. My score is 136 in sc category male… . And as per, 2nd answer key he will be 145_150..what will expected cut off sir.. What i do sir..
Question number 7- Answer should be C.
They have asked which are “not correct” , you have answered which are “Correct”.
Ref – Laxmikant.
Please refer: Indian Polity – III Edition Laxmikant (Page no: 15.2)
i thing cutt off should be higher than 200 for open .
Merit willl b 180+
hearing news of additional 80 vacancies while prelim result…so may come down.
The point of Origin of an Earth quake is known as seismic focus….. please correct it
We have made the correction. Thanks for your suggestion.
352 Emergency wala question answered wrong sir.B option is correct.
In Csat also 56 number question of trolling bells ans shld be 15
sir According to this answer key my score is 96+128.33=224.33 OBC. i think cutoff will be more than that becoz exam was very easy.
Paper 1… Que no 7. I think ans is 3 ( Only a)
Your answer key is for paper1 is almost correct.
MPSC classes in Maharashtra has no dearing to published
Such good type of model answer key..good work done by you..all the best..keep it up…
Q. 3 – The answer should be option B.
Q. 21 – I’m bit inconvinced, if you can elaborate the explaination, that why can’t the answer be an author?
Q. 79 – The answer you have given is B, but if the employee is in terrible pain, he should be first diagnosed and then the meeting should be called up.
Sir your answer key is almost accurate…but Cut-off will be high . around 180..
Me getting around 184 as per your keys OBC category …what r my chances??
Friends, there are plenty of mistakes in the answer key ranging from wrong question sequence to completely opposite answers.
Better to wait for the official key 🙂
Also check question no. 58 …Dead sea is having the most saline water..33%
Answer of question 7 in paper 1 is C…Check out in Laxmikant Polity book.
What is the source of answers for decision making questions in paper 2?
I think LPG stands for “Liberalization, Privatization & Globalization”
We have made the correction. Thanks for your prompt response.
Please upload the answer key of 2nd paper as soon as possible
Please check the answer key of MPSC Prelims Paper 2. All the Best!!
plz upload 2nd paper key
2nd question on emergency answer is both are correct
I THINK 74 Q ANS IS C
There is a problem from question number 69 to 76. Q 76 is given twice with different answers. 69th question is LPG which is not there in the key. (For Set D)
We have made the correction. Please check.
Please uploade Paper 2 MPSC answer key
Please let us know if there are any differences you might have on any particular answer. We are happy to review them with our teachers and correct if found wrong.
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