MPSC Answer Key 2019 | Question Paper, Answers & Cut Off

 

 


 

MPSC Prelims Answer Key 2019 with Questions for Paper 1 - All Sets

Check comprehensive Maharashtra Public Service Commission Prelims 2019 Answer Key. MPSC Prelims GS Paper Answer Key (all sets) with detailed solutions and sources is LIVE now!

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Q. No SET A SET B SET C SET D
Q.1 4 3 3 2
Q.2 3 1 4 2
Q.3 3 1 3 4
Q.4 2 3 3 1
Q.5 1/3 3 1 4
Q.6 2 4 1 3
Q.7 4 1 1 1
Q.8 4 2 3 4
Q.9 3 4 4 1
Q.10 2 4 1 2
Q.11 3 3 1 2
Q.12 1 4 1 4
Q.13 1 3 2 4
Q.14 3 3 2 4
Q.15 3 1 4 3
Q.16 4 1 3 4
Q.17 1 1 4 3
Q.18 2 3 1 1
Q.19 4 4 2 3
Q.20 4 1 3 4
Q.21 3 1 1 4
Q.22 4 1 3 3
Q.23 3 2 3 3
Q.24 3 2 1 2
Q.25 1 4 4 1/3
Q.26 1 3 2 2
Q.27 1 4 1 4
Q.28 3 1 1 4
Q.29 4 2 3 3
Q.30 1 3 4 2
Q.31 1 1 1 3
Q.32 1 3 4 1
Q.33 2 3 4 1
Q.34 2 1 3 3
Q.35 4 4 1 3
Q.36 3 2 1 4
Q.37 4 1 1 1
Q.38 1 1 3 2
Q.39 2 3 1 4
Q.40 3 4 3 4
Q.41 1 1 3 3
Q.42 3 4 4 4
Q.43 3 4 3 3
Q.44 1 3 NA 3
Q.45 4 1 1 1
Q.46 2 1 3 1
Q.47 1 1 3 1
Q.48 1 3 1 3
Q.49 3 1 1 4
Q.50 4 3 2 1
Q.51 1 3 2 1
Q.52 4 4 1 1
Q.53 4 3 1 2
Q.54 3 NA 4 2
Q.55 1 1 2 4
Q.56 1 3 1 3
Q.57 1 3 1 4
Q.58 3 1 1 1
Q.59 1 1 1 2
Q.60 3 2 2 3
Q.61 3 2 2 1
Q.62 4 1 2 3
Q.63 3 1 4 3
Q.64 NA 4 1 1
Q.65 1 2 4 4
Q.66 3 1 3 2
Q.67 3 1 1 1
Q.68 1 1 4 1
Q.69 1 1 1 3
Q.70 2 2 2 4
Q.71 2 2 2 4
Q.72 1 2 4 4
Q.73 1 4 4 4
Q.74 4 1 4 3
Q.75 2 4 3 1
Q.76 1 3 4 1
Q.77 1 1 3 1
Q.78 1 4 1 3
Q.79 1 1 3 1
Q.80 2 2 4 3
Q.81 2 2 4 3
Q.82 2 4 3 4
Q.83 4 4 3 3
Q.84 1 4 2 NA
Q.85 4 3 1/3 1
Q.86 3 4 2 3
Q.87 1 3 4 3
Q.88 4 1 4 1
Q.89 1 3 3 1
Q.90 2 4 2 2
Q.91 2 4 3 2
Q.92 4 3 1 1
Q.93 4 3 1 1
Q.94 4 2 3 4
Q.95 3 1/3 3 2
Q.96 4 2 4 1
Q.97 3 4 1 1
Q.98 1 4 2 1
Q.99 3 3 4 1
Q.100 4 2 4 2

MPSC Prelims 2019 GS Paper Analysis by Prathmesh Gholap (MPSC Topper) of HVDCEC

MPSC Prelims 2019 Score Calculator GS Paper I

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The questions are in order as in Set C

  1. Consider the following statements regarding changes made by the Indian Independence Act of 1947 in the position of Constituent Assembly :
    a. The Constituent Assemby was made a fully sovereign body.
    b. The Constituent Assembly became the first Parliament of free India.
    c. When the Constituent Assembly met as the Legislative body it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
    d. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly came down to 299 as against 389.
    1. a) Statements a, b, and c are correct
    2. b) Statements b, c and d are correct
    3. c) Statements a, b and d are correct
    4. d) Statements a, c and d are correct
  2. Which one of the following has not been provided by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 relating to National Emergency ?
    1. a) A proclamation of National Emergency will not be issued by President unless there is a written recommendaiton of the Cabinet.
    2. b) The expression 'internal disturbances' has been replaced by 'armed rebellion'.
    3. c) The six fundamental rights under Article 19 can be suspended only when the National Emergency is decleared on grounds of war or external aggression and not on grounds of armed rebellion.
    4. d) The President must issue a proclamatioon of revocation any time if any House of Parliament passes a resolution disapproving of the continuance of the proclamation
  3. Consider the following statements :
    a. The original Constitution provided that the Vice Prisident would be elected by the two Houses of Parliament assembled at a joint meeting.
    B. The 11th Constitutional Amendment, 1961 changed the procedure of election of the Vice President.
    c. The Vice President is elected by the memebers of an electoral college consisting of the elected members only of both the Houses.
    d. The election of the Vice President cannot be challended on the grounds that the electoral college was incomplete.
    1. a) Statements a, b are correct , c and d are false
    2. b) Statements b, c, d are correct and a is false
    3. c) Statements a, b, d are correct and c is false
    4. d) Statements b, c are correct a and d are false
  4. Which one of the following statements about the Governor of Maharashtra is true?
    1. a) He can nominate one member to the Legislative Council from the Anglo India community
    2. b) He can nominate at least two members to the Legislative Assembly fromt the Anglo Indian community
    3. c) He has been given special responsibility under Article 371 (2)
    4. d) He cannot reserve the bill for the consideration of President, dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.
  5. Which of the following items is wrongly matched?
    1. a) 11th December, 1946 : Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly.
    2. b) 29th August , 1947 : Drafting committee was set up
    3. c) 26th November , 1949 : The people of India adopted , enacted and gave to themselves the Constitution
    4. d) Constitution was finally signed by the members of the Constituent Assembly.
  6. In the case of a bill passed by the State Legislature , Governor can reserve it for the consideration of the President
    a. The President may declare or withhold his assent to the bill.
    b.The President may return the bill for reconsideration to the State Legislature.
    c. State Legislature must reconsider the bill within three months and if passed again it is obligatory upon the President to give his assent.
    d. In case of reconsidered bill which is passed again by State Legislature, President shall declare his assent within a period of six months.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    1. a) a and b
    2. b) a, b and c
    3. c) a, b and d
    4. d) a, c and d
  7. In India, Judicial Review implies
    1. a) The power of the judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
    2. b) The power of the judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the legislatures
    3. c) The power of the judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
    4. d) The power of the judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
  8. Which of the statements is/are included as provision of the Indian Constiution ?
    a.The person to be appointed as Governor of a State should be a domicile of some other State of the India Union
    b. There should be at least one Muslim judge in the Supreme Court so as to ensure its secular character.
    c. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament should belong to a party in the opposition.
    1. a) only a
    2. b) only b
    3. c) none of the above
    4. d) a and b
  9. Consider the following statements :
    a. Odisha Legislative Assembly passed resolution for creation of Legislative Council recently.
    b.Currently , five States have Legislative Councils.
    c, Proposals to create Legislative Councils in Kerala and Gujarat are pending in Parliament.
    d. 1/12 th members of Legislative Council are elected by registered graduates .
    Which of the above statements are correct ?
    1. a) a, b and c
    2. b) b and c
    3. c) c and d
    4. d) a and d
  10. Which one of the following statements is / are not correct ?
    a.In LokSabh , a no-confidence motion has to set out the grouns on which it is based.
    b.In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha procedures of admissibility have been laid down in Rule 198 of Lok Sabha.
    c. A motion of no confidence once admitted has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted.
    d. In Italy , the government requires the support of both houses of Parliament.
    1. a) only a
    2. b) Only c
    3. c) b and c
    4. d) a and d
  11. Which one of the following statements about Election Commission of India is false?
    1. a) Only the Chief Election Commissioner has a secuiryt of tenure but not to the other Election Commissioners.
    2. b) The Chief Election Commissioner holds the position or status of a judge of the Supreme Court.
    3. c) The Chief Election Commissioner is merely first among equals.
    4. d) In case of difference of opinion amongs the Chief Election Commissioner and other Electon Commissioners, the matter is decided by majority.
  12. Consider the following provisions :
    a. According to Article 21 of the Indian Constitution ,no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the 'due process of Law'
    b. According to Article 20 (2) of the Indian Constituion , no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
    c. Accordint to Article 14 of the indian Constitution, the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the terittory of India.
    Which of the provisions given above is not correct?
    1. a) a
    2. b) b
    3. c) c
    4. d) None of the above
  13. Consider the following statements :
    a. Article 2 of the Indian Constitution relates to admission or establishment of new States which are not part of the Union of India.
    b. Article 3 of the Indian Constitution provides for the formation of or changes in the existing States incuding Union territories.
    c. A bill under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution shall be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
    Which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. a) All of the above
    2. b) a and b
    3. c) b and c
    4. d) Only c
  14. Which one of the following statements about 'Lok Adalat' is incorrect?
    1. a) Under the Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987, Lok Adalats have been given a statutory status.
    2. b) Lok Adalats can be constituted of serving or retired judicial persons only.
    3. c) Every award made by the Lok Adalat is final and binding on the parties
    4. d) The award passed by the Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court.
  15. Consider the following statements about the States Reorganisation Commission and Act?
    a.The commission was appointed in December , 1953.
    b. The commission was headed by Fazal Ali and two members of the commission were H.V. Kamath and Govind Ballabh Pant.
    c. The commisssion submitted its report on September 30, 1954.
    d. The States Re-organisation Act was enacted on August 31, 1956.
    e. The States Re-organisation Act came into effect on January 1, 1957.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    1. a) a, b and c
    2. b) b, c and d
    3. c) b, d and e
    4. d) a and d only
  16. Which one of the followwing statements about 'Statue of Unity is false?
    1. a) The 182 metre high Statue of Unity is twice the height of New York's Statue of Liberty.
    2. b) The height of the Statue in metres has been picked to match the total Assembly Constituencies in Gujarat.
    3. c) October 31, 2018 marks the 145th birth anniversry of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
    4. d) None of the above
  17. Consider the following statements :
    a. There are five types of bones in the skeleton.
    b.The function of the long bones is to support weight and facilitate movement.
    c.The function of the flat bones is to protect tendons from stress.
    1. a) Statements a and b are correct
    2. b) Statements b and c are correct
    3. c) Statements a and c are correct
    4. d) All the statements are correct
  18. Which one of the following statements about Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is not correct?
    1. a) Initially the NSG had seven participating governments.
    2. b) As of 2018 , the NSG has 51 participating governments.
    3. c) The NSG chair for 2018 - 19 is Latvia
    4. d) India seeks to join the NSG to become an exporter of nuclear technology.
  19. Match the pairs about 'BRICS' summit. :
    a. 2014 I. Goa Summit
    b. 2015 II. Fortaleza Summit
    c. 2016 III. Xiamen Summit
    d. 2017 IV. Ufa Summit
    e. 2018 V. Johannesburt Summit
    1. a) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I, e-V
    2. b) a-I, b-IV, c-I, d-III, e-V
    3. b) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV, e-V
    4. d) a-V, b-IV, c-II, d-III, e-I
  20. Which one of the following statements is false with regard to Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Bill, 2018?
    1. a) The Bill makes specific provisions related to giving of bribes is now an offence
    2. b) The Bill amends various provision of Preventio of Corruption Act, 1988
    3. c) The Bill incorporates the recommendations given by the 21st Law Commission headed by Justice B.S. Chauhan
    4. d) By making citizens liable for offering a bribe to a public servant, the anti corruption law has been brought to line with UN Convention Against Corruption
  21. On January 31, 2018 , a rare 'Blue Moon' event was experienced in large parts of the globe. In that context consider the following statements :
    a. It was a rare moment as a blue moon, a super moon and a total lunar eclipse fell on the same day.
    b.When two full moons appear in the same calender month, the second is termed as 'Super moon'.
    c. When the full moon is at the closest point of its orbit to the Earth it is termed as 'Blue moon'
    The correct statement/s is/are :
    1. a) Only a
    2. b) Only a and b
    3. c) Only b and c
    4. d) Only a and c
  22. Consider the following statements about 'Swachh Survekshan Gramin Awards, 2018' :
    a. Haryana was ranked as best State in India.
    b.Maharashtra was ranked as second best State in India.
    c.Satara District of Maharashtra was ranked as best district.
    d.Nashik District of Maharashtra was ranked first for maximum citizens participation.
    1. a) a, b and c
    2. b) b, c and d
    3. c) a, c and d
    4. d) All of the above
  23. Tikka' disease affects which one of the following crops ?
    1. a) Cotton
    2. b) Wheat
    3. c) Ground nut
    4. d) Rice
  24. Consider the following statements :
    a. As of July 2018, a total of 1092 World Heritage sites exist across 167 countries.
    b.Italy, with 54 World Heritage sites has the most of any county (up to July 2018)
    c. India has 39 World Heritage sites (up to July 2018).
    d. A collection of Victorian, Gothic and Art Deco buildings of Mumbai are declared as World Heritage sites in 2018.
    Which of the above statements are correct?
    1. a) a, b and d
    2. b) b , c and d
    3. c) a, b and c
    4. d) All of the above
  25. Consider the following statements :
    a. India was elected to the UN's top human rights body for a period of three types beginning January 1, 2019.
    b. India got 188 votes in the Asia Pacific category , the highest number of votes among all candidates in UNHRC election.
    c. India had previously been electd to the Geneva based Human Rights Council for the 2010 - 2013 and 2013 - 2016 term.
    Which of the above statements is/are true?
    1. a) Only a
    2. b) a and b
    3. c) Ony c
    4. d) All of the above
  26. Which is the world's fastest super computer ? (Up to end of June 2018)
    1. a) Tianhe (China)
    2. b) Sunway Taihulight (China)
    3. c) Summit (USA)
    4. d) Titan (USA)
  27. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
    a. India opens Zokhawathar immigration check post in Mizoram along Myanmar border.
    b. Zokhawthar is the second immigration check post in Mizoram along Myanmar border after Zorinpui check post.
    c.India shares 1751 km long border with Myanmar which touches Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland , Assam and Meghalaya.
    1. a) a and b
    2. b) a and c
    3. c) a, b and c
    4. d) Only a
  28. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
    1. a) India's first environment friendly bio-fuel powered flight flew between Chennai and Bengaluru
    2. b) India has recently released its National Policy on Bio fuel 2018
    3. c) The policy envisages a target of 20% blending of ethanol in petrol by 2030
    4. d) None of the above
  29. Recently 'Bonnethead Shark' was in the news. Consider the following statements regarding this :
    a. It mainly eats the sea grass.
    b.It is mainly found in Indian Ocean and Arabian Sea.
    Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given below :
    1. a) Only a
    2. b) Only b
    3. c) Both a and b
    4. d) Neither a nor b
  30. Consider the following statements :
    a. The Constitution does not include any provision for categorism of any State in India as a Special Category Status (SCS) State.
    b.The National Development Council first accorded SCS in 1969 to Jammu and Kashmir, Assam and Nagaland.
    c. The Central Government pays 90% of the funds required in a centrally sponsored scheme to SCS category States as against 60% in case of normal States.
    Which of the above statements is / are false?
    1. a) Only a
    2. b) a and b
    3. c) Only c
    4. d) None of the above
  31. Match the following governors of Muhammad Ghori and the territorires where they ruled almost independently after the death of Muhammad Ghori
    a. Yaldoz I. Delhi
    b. Kubacha II. Bengal
    c. Muhammad - ibn - Bakhtyar III. Indus
    d. Aibak IV. Afghan Mountains.
    1. a) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
    2. b) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
    3. c) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
    4. d) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
  32. In the Pre-Mauryan period India was known as ______
    1. a) The Queen of the Eastern Seas
    2. b) The Queen of the Western Seas
    3. c) The Queen of the Southern Seas
    4. d) The Queen of the Erythrean Sea
  33. Match the following dynasties and their kings :
    a. Rashtrakut I. Gopal
    b. Chola II. Upendra
    c. Palas III. Dantidurga
    d. Parmars IV. Vijayalaya
    1. a) a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
    2. a) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
    3. c) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
    4. c) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
  34. It was the result of Achaemenid conquest that a new industry of _____ developed in Indian border land, specially in Kamboji.
    1. a) ship building
    2. b) blanket making
    3. c) handloom sari making
    4. d) utensils making
  35. Match the following :
    a. The king of Kamarupa I. Was already humbled by Prabhakarvardhna.
    b. The ruler of Sind II. Dared not detain in Chinese pilgrim at his capital against the wish of Harsha.
    c.The ruler of Kashmir III. Was compelled to surrender a tooth relic to Harsha.
    d. The ruler of Valabhi IV. Had once fled before the advancing arms of Kanauj Monarch but later married his daughter.
    1. a) a-II, b-I, c-III d-IV
    2. b) a-II, b-I , c -IV, d - III
    3. c) a-I, b - II, c - III, d - IV
    4. d) a-IV, b - III, c - I, d -II
  36. Who from the following persons was not related to the State of Kolhapur?
    1. a) Kashinath Rao Vaidya
    2. b) Dinkarrao Javalkar
    3. c) Madhavrao Bagal
    4. d) Dadasaheb Surve
  37. Match the following :
    a. C. Rajagopalachari I. Was elected as the President of the Central Legislative Assembly.
    b.Madan Mohan Malviya and Lala Lajpat Rai II. Kept himself busy with constructive programmes such as upliftment of Harijans.
    c.Vithalbhai Patel III. Was elected Mayor of Calcutta
    d. C.R. Das IV. Criticized the Swarajists
    1. a) a-II , b - IV, c - I, d-III
    2. b) a-I, b-II, c - III, d- IV
    3. c) a-IV, b - III, c - II, d - I
    4. d) a-III, b - I, c - IV, d - II
  38. Who is described in the following sentences?
    a.He was an author from Pune.
    b.He used to go in the colonies of the untouchables and teach them.
    c. In 1945 he was the president of the function arranged to celebrate 'Ambedkar Jayanti' at Kalyan.
    d.He was a supporter of Hinduism from Pune.
    1. a) D.K. Pethe
    2. b) Mamarao Date
    3. c) S.M. Alias Bapusaheb Mate
    4. d) Krushnarao Marathe
  39. Match the following :
    a. Pandit Ramkumar Vidyaratna. I. Wrote Englsh articles for newspaper 'Bengalee'
    b. Krishna Kumar Mitra II. Was a Brahmo missionary
    c. Pandit Shivnath Shastri III. Editor of Bengali newspaper 'Sanjivani'
    d. Dwarkanath Ganguly IV. Wrote 'Kuli -Kahini'
    1. a) a-IV , b - III, c - II, d-I
    2. b) a-III, b-IV, c - I, d- II
    3. c) a-I, b - II, c - III, d - IV
    4. d) a-II, b - I, c - IV, d - III
  40. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer options.
    a.Mughal architecture is of Indian style.
    b.Mughal architecture was influenced by both , the Persian and Hindu arts.
    c.There is an impact of foreigners on Mughal architecture.
    d. Mughal architecture was influenced by no one.
    1. a) Statement a is correct , but b, c and d are incorrect
    2. b) b and d are incorrect , but a and c are correct
    3. c) a, b and c are correct, but d is incorrect
    4. d) d is correct but a, b and c are incorrect
  41. Arrange the following incidents in their chronological order.
    a. Muslim League was formed in Dhaka
    b. Khudiram Bose was executed.
    c.Bomb was thrown at Lord Hardinge.
    d.Hindu Conference was held at Lahore , under the Presidentship of Sir Prafulchandra Chatterji.
    1. a) a,b, c, d
    2. b) b, a, d, c
    3. c) a, b, d, c
    4. d) a, d, c, b
  42. Who from the following women scholars were related to the Rigvedic Period ?
    a. Vishwavara
    b. Apala
    c. Lopamudra
    d. Ghosha
    1. a) Only a and b
    2. b) Only a, b and c
    3. c) Only b, c and d
    4. d) All the above
  43. In which of the following forms was India's capital and wealth transferred to Britain ?
    a.Salaries and pensions of the British civil and military officials working in India.
    b.Profits of the British capitalists in India.
    c.Expenses of the Indian government in Britain.
    d. Interests on lonas by the Indian government.
    1. a) Only a, c and d
    2. b) Only a , b and c
    3. c) a, b, c and d
    4. d) Only b, c and d
  44. Pick out the odd person from the following :
    1. a) Shankarrao Deo
    2. b) Gangadharrao Deshpande
    3. c) Pundalikji Katgade
    4. d) Bhaskar Vishnu Kale
  45. The generals of ______ conquered land upto Ganges , while his admirals established their authority over several overseas territories including Ceylon, Nicobar islands and parts of the Malaya Peninsula.
    1. a) Rajendra Chola I
    2. b) Rajaraja I
    3. c) Someshvara III
    4. d) Vikramaditya IV
  46. Match the pairs of Column A and Column B :
    Column A (Origin of Solar System) Column B (Inventor)
    a. Nebular Hypothesis I. James Jeans
    b. Meteorite Hypothesis II. Moulton
    c. Planetesimal Hypothesis III. Lockyer
    d. Tidal Hypothesis IV. Laplace
    1. a) a-II , b - I, c - III, d-IV
    2. b) a-III, b-II, c - IV d- I
    3. c) a-IV, b - III, c - II, d - I
    4. d) a-I, b - II, c - IV, d - III
  47. What are the evidences in favour of the Continental Drift Theory ? Select the proper option ?
    a.Jigsaw fit
    b. Trans current faults
    c. Fossils in different areas
    d. Convecton in mantle
    1. a) a and d
    2. b) b and d
    3. c) a and c
    4. d) a and b
  48. Examine the following statements and select the proper option.
    Statement 'A' : Inner core of the Earth is made up by Nickel and Ferrous.
    Statement 'B' : The Earth's crust is made up of Silica , Aluminium and Magnesium.
    1. a) Statement 'A' and 'B' are both correct
    2. b) Statement 'A; is correct and 'B' is wrong
    3. c) Statement 'A' is wrong and 'B' is correct
    4. d) Statement 'A' and 'B' are both wrong
  49. Examine and identify the correct statements of the following :
    Statement 'A' : Deccan Plateau is made up of Basalt Rock.
    Statement 'B' : The origin of Basalt Rock on the Deccan Plateau is due to the deposition of lava erupted from volcano.
    1. a) Statement 'A' and 'B' are both correct
    2. b) Statement 'A; is correct and 'B' is false
    3. c) Statement 'A is correct but 'B' is false
    4. d) Statement 'A' is false but 'B' is correct
  50. Match the pairs of column A and column B :
    Column A (Type of Rock) Column B (Rock)
    a. Extrusive Igneou Rock I. Dyke
    b. Intrusive Igneous Rock II. Arenaceous Rock
    c. Sedimentary Rock III. Graphite
    d. Metamorphic Rock IV. Conglomerate
    1. a) a-I , b - III, c - IV, d-II
    2. b) a-IV, b-I, c - II, d- III
    3. c) a-III, b - II, c - I, d - IV
    4. d) a-II, b - III, c - IV, d - I
  51. The following figures are the 'Relief Features' created by external forces. Select the proper option from these relief features created by external forces.

    DIAGRAM
    U-Shaped Valley Gorge Barkhan Arch
    1. a) Wind Glacier Sea waves River
    2. b) Glacier River Wind Sea waves
    3. c) River Wind Glacier Sea Waves
    4. d) Sea waves Glacier River Wind
  52. Examine the statement A and statement B.
    Statement 'A' : 35% solar energy is not useful for the heating of Earth's surface as well as atmosphere, that heat is called "Albedo of the Earth's surface".
    Statement 'B' : Through Short Waves , Scattering and Reflection process of the air molecules, heat is transferred by the small dust particles , clouds and earth's surface in the space.
    1. a) Statements 'A' and 'B' are both true and 'B' is not the correct explanation of 'A'
    2. b) Statements 'A' and 'B' are both true and 'B' is not the correct explanation of 'A'
    3. c) Statements 'A' is true but 'B' is false.
    4. d) Statements 'A' is false but 'B' is true
  53. Match the pairs of column A and column B :
    Column A (Local winds) Column B (Regions where they are found)
    a. Chinook I. Alps mountains in Europe
    b. Fohn II. From South Europe to Mediterranean Sea
    c. Loo III. Plain area of North India
    d. Mistral IV. Rocky Mountains in North America
    1. a) a-IV, b-I, c - III, d- II
    2. b) a-III, b-II, c - I, d- IV
    3. c) a-II, b-III, c - IV, d- I
    4. d) a-I, b-IV, c - II, d- III
  54. Match the pairs of Column A and Column B :
    Column A (Soil Type) Column B (Crops)
    a. Mountainous soil I. Cereals
    b. Black soil II. Cashew
    c. Desert soil III. Apple
    d. Laterite soil IV. Cotton
    1. a) a-I, b-II, c - IV, d- III
    2. b) a-IV, b-III, c - II, d- I
    3. c) a-II, b-I, c - III, d- IV
    4. d) a-III, b-IV, c - I, d- II
  55. Match the pairs and choose correct option :
    Rock District
    a. Gondwana series rocks I. Yavatmal , Gadchiroli
    b. Dharwar series rocks II. Sawantwadi, Vengurla
    c. Archean series rocks III. Bhandara , Gondia
    d. Vindhyan series rocks IV. Chandrapur
    1. a) a-III, b-II, c - IV, d- I
    2. a) a-IV, b-I, c - II, d- III
    3. c) a-I, b-III, c - II, d- IV
    4. a) a-II, b-I, c - III, d- IV
  56. Match the following and choose the correct option.
    a. 1st Satellite communication centre in Maharashtra I. Wardha
    b. District having complete electrification in Maharashtra II. Gangapur (Nashik)
    c. 1st earthen dam in Maharashtra III. Arvi
    d. 1st hydroelectric project in Maharashtra IV. Khopoli (Raigad)
    1. a) a-I, b-III, c - II, d- IV
    2. b) a-II, b-IV, c - III, d- I
    3. c) a-I, b-III, c - IV, d- II
    4. d) a-III, b-II, c - IV, d- I
  57. Match the appropriate pairs of Rivers and Cities on the river bank.
    River Cities on river bank
    a. Panzara I. Sangamner
    b. Dham II. Bhusawal
    c. Pravara III. Dhule
    d. Tapi IV. Pawnar
    1. a) a-III, b-IV, c - I, d- II
    2. b) a-III, b-II, c - I, d- IV
    3. c) a-III, b-I, c - II, d- IV
    4. d) a-IV, b-I, c - III, d- II
  58. Given below are two statements , one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R), Select your answer from the following options.
    Assertion (A) : Air transport is a very useful means of transport in mountainuous and hilly regions for all.
    Reason (B) : It is very costly and difficult to construct roads and railways in mountainous regions.
    1. a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    3. c) (A) is true but (R) is false
    4. d) (A) is false but (R) is true
  59. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) . Select your answer from the following options.
    Assetion (A) : Deforestation results in the increase of concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
    Reason (B) : Forests utilise carbon dioxide during the proces of photosynthesis for manufacturing of food.
    1. a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    3. c) (A) is true but (R) is false
    4. d) (A) is false but (R) is true
  60. Observe the map and find the out the correct option of blowing winds.
    DIAGRAM
    1. a) South - West monsoon winds
    2. b) North - East monsoon winds
    3. c) South West trade winds
    4. d) Polar winds
  61. Study the following statements about Greenhouse gases effect.
    a.Our planet was heating at the rate of 1oC per 100 years , till 1970
    b. Since last 20 years, the planet has been warming at the rate of 10oC per 100 years.
    c. Most of the glaciers in different parts of the world are retreating.
    d. Frequency and effect of El Nino is increasing
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    1. a) Only a and b are correct
    2. b) Only c and d are correct
    3. c) Only b is correct
    4. d) Only a , c and d are correct
  62. Match the following :
    Column I Column II
    (Waste Disposal Method) (Meaning)
    a. Sanitary landfills I. Burning of waste
    b. Incineration II. Deposit the refuse and compost it with bulldozers
    c. Pulverisg III. Combustion in absence of oxygen
    d. Pyrolysis IV. Spreading the waste on fields
    1. a) a-II, b-I, c - III, d- IV
    2. b) a-II, b-I, c - IV, d- III
    3. c) a-I, b-II, c - III, d- IV
    4. d) a-IV, b-III, c - II, d- I
  63. The effects of aerosols on climate is/are
    a. They directly reflect sunlight back to space.
    b.They indirectly make clouds brighter reflectors.
    c. Aerosols have a net cooling effect on climate systems.
    d.Human generated aerosols offset the impact of global warming to some extent.
    Which of the above effects is/are true?
    1. a) Only a, b and c are true
    2. b) Only a and c are true
    3. c) Only b , c and d are true
    4. d) a, b, c and d are true
  64. Which of the following is the major cause of poor health in Indians?
    1. a) Air pollution
    2. b) Water pollution
    3. c) Noise pollution
    4. d) Soil pollution
  65. The Earth Summit of 1992 at Rio de Janeiro resulted into a Convention on Biodiversity , which came into force in which of the following date?
    1. a) 19th December 1993
    2. b) 1st Arpil 2000
    3. c) 5th June 1992
    4. d) 29th December 1993
  66. To whom is the Nobel Prize in Economics in 2018 awarded for their contribution in sustainable and long term economic development?
    1. a) Prof. Solo and Samuelson
    2. b) Gunnar Mydral and Prof. Rajan
    3. c) Prof. Willam Nordhaus and Prof. Paul Romer
    4. d) Prof. Amartya Sen and Prof. Basu
  67. Match the author / committee and their poverty concept :
    a. World Bank I. Per capita per day, the availability of food in village 2400 calories, in city 2100 calories.
    b.Shri Gaurav Datt II. Poverty gap
    c. Lakdawala Committee (1993) III. Avalability of food is less than 2250 calories per day.
    d. Dr. Dandekar and Dr. Rath IV. According to 1973 - 74 prices, who do not get per capita per month in village Rs. 49.09 and in city Rs.57 food
    1. a) a-I, b-II, c - III, d- IV
    2. b) a-II, b-I, c - IV, d- III
    3. c) a-III, b-I, c - II, d- IV
    4. d) a-IV, b-III, c - I, d- II
  68. Prices of which of the following commodities are considered in Wholesale Price Index (WPI) ?
    a. Primary Goods
    b. Oil
    c. Manufactured Goods
    1. a) Only a and c
    2. b) Only a and b
    3. c) Only b
    4. d) All of the above
  69. Which of the following criteria was considered by P.D Ojha Committee (1960-61) for calculating poverty line?
    1. a) Per capita, per month income
    2. b) Per capita , per month consumption expenditure
    3. c) Both of the above
    4. d) None of the above
  70. Which of the following are the indicators of the contribution of government in the process of Inclusive Growth?
    1. a) The Revenue GDP ratio
    2. b) The Public Investment GDP ratio
    3. c) Both of the above
    4. d) None of the above
  71. In the context of planning era ie 1951 to 2011 , take into consideration the following statements :
    a. Food production increases fourfold , diversified industrial growth takes place.
    b.Import substitution, diversified export promotion and science and technical educational expansion takes place.
    c. Achievement in reducing poverty and unemployment ratio.
    d. Reduction in concentration of economic power, decentralization of income and wealth takes place.
    Which of the above statements are true?
    1. a) b, c and d
    2. b) b and c
    3. c) a and b
    4. d) c and d
  72. Which of the following is not a millenium development goal?
    1. a) Eradicate extreme poverty education
    2. b) Achieve universal primary education
    3. c) Reduce child mortality
    4. d) Ensure agricultural sustainability
  73. Which of the following factors are included in Gender Inequality Index (GII) ?
    a. Reproductive Health
    b. Empowerment
    c. Labour market
    1. a) Only a and b
    2. b) Only b and c
    3. c) Only b
    4. d) a, b,c and d
  74. Which of the following scheme/schemes is/are useful for socio economic growth of minority communities?
    a. Nai Roshni
    b. Padho Pardesh
    c. Learn and Earn
    d. Nai Manzil
    1. a) Only a and b
    2. b) Only c and d
    3. c) None of the above
    4. d) All of the above
  75. In June 2012, according to Rio +20 declaration , Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were decided. Which of the following features was/were not decided ?
    a. Poverty eradication , fight against unequality, gender equality.
    b.Health and educational reforms , ocean and forest protection
    c. World partnership for sustainale development and effective strucutre for follow up and revies.
    d. Ban on terrorist organisations and attacks on other countries.
    1. a) Only c and d
    2. b) Only a, b and c
    3. c) Only d
    4. d) Only a
  76. As per the 2011 census , match the cities according to their population.
    Cities Population (In millions)
    a. Greater Bombay I. 8.7
    b. Delhi II. 14.1
    c. Kolkata III. 16.3
    d.Chennai IV. 18.4
    1. a) a-III, b-IV, c - II, d- I
    2. b) a-I, b-II, c - III, d- IV
    3. c) a-II, b-I, c - IV, d- III
    4. d) a-IV, b-III, c - II, d- I
  77. The LPG model of development was introduced in 1991 by then Finance Minister _____
    1. a) P.V Narasimha Rao
    2. b) Pranab Mukherjee
    3. c) Dr. Manmohan Singh
    4. d) P.Chidambaram
  78. Under the Eleventh Plan, some of the monitorable targets reflecting inclusiveness include
    a. infrastructure
    b. environment
    c. income and poverty
    d. education and health
    1. a) Only c and d
    2. b) a, b, c and d
    3. c) Only c
    4. d) Only b, c and d
  79. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) for financial inclusion was launched on which date ?
    1. a) 16th May 2014
    2. b) 15th May 2014
    3. c) 28th August 2014
    4. d) 18th Novemeber 2014
  80. The scope of land reforms includes
    a. Abolition of intermediaries
    b. Tenancy Reforms
    c. Ceiling on land holdings
    d. Organisation of cooperative farming
    1. a) Only a
    2. b) Only b
    3. c) Only c and d
    4. d) All of the above
  81. An astronaut in the satellite feels weightlessness because ______
    a. the force exerted by the satellite floor on the astronaut is equal to zero.
    b.the astronaut and the satellite floor are attracted towards each other.
    c.he is not attracted by an gravitational force.
    d. None of the above
    1. a) a,b and c
    2. b) Only a and b
    3. c) Only a and c
    4. d) Only d
  82. In electronic communication system , digital signals
    a. do not provide a continuous set of values.
    b.represent values as discrete steps
    c. utilize binary system.
    d. Utilize decimal as well as binary systems
    Which of the above statements are true?
    1. a) Only a and b
    2. b) Only b and c
    3. c) a, b and c
    4. d) All of the above
  83. Energy of the electron revolving around the nucleus in second orbit is -3.4 eV. What is its energy in third orbit?
    1. a) -1.51 J
    2. b) -3.4 eV
    3. c) -1.51 eV
    4. d) -13.6 eV
  84. Optical fibre is based on which of the following principles?
    a.Principle of reflection of light
    b. Principle of refraction of light
    c. Principle of total internal reflection
    d. Principle of dispersion of light
    1. a) a, b and c
    2. b) Only c
    3. c) b and d
    4. d) Only d
  85. Consider the following statements :
    a. Beta particles are negatively charged and are more penetrating than Alpha particles , which are positively charged.
    b.Gamma particles are neutral and are more penetrating than Beta particles
    c. In general neutral particles can be said to be having very high penetrating power.
    1. a) a and b are universally true
    2. b) a and b are false but c is true
    3. c) c is resultant statement of a and b
    4. d) c is not resultant statement of a and b
  86. During inelastic collision between two bodies, which of the following quantities always remains conserved?
    1. a) Total kinetic energy
    2. b) Total mechanical energy
    3. c) Total linear momentum
    4. d) Speed of each body
  87. Name the transgenic crop in which three genes for synthesis of vitamin A are introduced through the technique of genetic engineering.
    1. a) Kalyan Sona wheat
    2. b) Sweet sorghum
    3. c) Hybrid bajra
    4. d) Golden rice
  88. How many linkage groups are present in the female and male grasshopper insect?
    1. a) 04 and 04
    2. b) 10 and 10
    3. c) 12 and 12
    4. d) 23 and 24
  89. Name the plant having H.S.K or C4 pathway of photosynthesis.
    1. a) Sugarcane
    2. b) Groundnut
    3. c) Sunflower
    4. d) Potato
  90. Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy by oxidizing _____ chemical compounds
    1. a) Organic
    2. b) Inorganic
    3. c) Synthetic
    4. d) Processed
  91. In the nephron of man, what is the correct sequence of urine formation?
    1. a) Selective reabsorption , tubular secretion and ultrafiltration
    2. b) Ultrafiltration , tubular secretion and selective reabsorption
    3. c) Ultraficatio, selective reabsorption and tubular secretion
    4. d) Tubular secretion, selective reabsorption and ultrafiltration
  92. Which of the following situations will be fatal to second foetus?
    1. a) Rh+ male marries Rh- woman
    2. b) Rh- male marries Rh+ woman
    3. c) Rh+ male marries Rh+woman
    4. d) Rh- male marries Rh- woman
  93. Match the following :
    Respiratory Pigment Animal / Animal group
    a. Haemoglobin I. Annelida
    b. Chlorocruorin II. Vertebrates
    c. Hemerythrin III. Lingula
    d. Haemocyanin IV. Molluscs
    1. a) a-II, b-III, c - I, d- IV
    2. b) a-II, b-I, c - III, d- IV
    3. c) a-III, b-II, c - IV, d- I
    4. d) a-IV, b-III, c - I, d- II
  94. Consider the following statements about sliding filament theory of muscle contraction :
    a. This theory explains the modern concept of muscle contraction
    b. This theory was put forward by Huxley and Niedegreke
    Which of the above statements is/are true?
    1. a) Only a
    2. b) Only b
    3. c) Both a and b
    4. d) None of the above
  95. During calcination process
    1. a) Only CO2 is given out
    2. b) Only H2O from hydrates is given out
    3. c) (1) or (2) depending on type of ore
    4. d) H2S is given out
  96. By green chemistry , we mean
    1. a) Producing chemicals of our daily use from greenhouse gases
    2. b) Performing chemical processes which use green plants
    3. c) Performing only those reactions which are of biological origin
    4. d) The use of non toxic reagents and solvents to produce environmentally friendly products
  97. Which of the following is not a Lewis acid?
    1. a) Barium chloride (BaCl2)
    2. b) Boron trichloride (BaCl3)
    3. c) Beryllium chloride (Be Cl2)
    4. d) Boron trifluoride (BF3)
  98. The following are some of the properties of the colloidal sols :
    a. Tyndall effect
    b. Brownian motion
    c. Maxwell distribution
    d. vander Waals forces
    1. a) a, b and c
    2. b) a and b
    3. c) a and c
    4. d) b and d
  99. Which of the following statements are correct?
    a.HF and H2O are polar molecules.
    b. CH4 and CO2 are non polar molecules
    c. CO2 and SO2 are non polar molecules
    1. a) a and b
    2. b) b and c
    3. c) a and c
    4. d) a, b and c
  100. Which of the following reactants can be used to prepare ammonia?
    a.NH4Cl + Ca(OH)2
    b. N2 + H2
    c. CaCN2 + H2O
    1. a) a and b
    2. b) b and c
    3. c) a and c
    4. d) a, b and c

MPSC Pre Answer Key 2019 with Questions for Paper 2 - All Sets

Q. No SET A SET B SET C SET D
Q.1     2  
Q.2     4  
Q.3     3  
Q.4     1  
Q.5     2  
Q.6     3  
Q.7     4  
Q.8     2  
Q.9     2  
Q.10     2  
Q.11     4  
Q.12     1  
Q.13     2  
Q.14     3  
Q.15     1  
Q.16     2  
Q.17     1  
Q.18        
Q.19     1  
Q.20     4  
Q.21     1  
Q.22     2  
Q.23     4  
Q.24     4  
Q.25     3  
Q.26        
Q.27        
Q.28        
Q.29        
Q.30        
Q.31     1  
Q.32     4  
Q.33     1  
Q.34        
Q.35     1  
Q.36     3  
Q.37        
Q.38     1  
Q.39     3  
Q.40        
Q.41        
Q.42        
Q.43        
Q.44        
Q.45        
Q.46     3  
Q.47     4  
Q.48     1  
Q.49     1  
Q.50     3  
Q.51        
Q.52     2  
Q.53     3  
Q.54     3  
Q.55     2  
Q.56        
Q.57     2  
Q.58     4  
Q.59     4  
Q.60     1  
Q.61     1  
Q.62     3  
Q.63     1  
Q.64        
Q.65        
Q.66     4  
Q.67        
Q.68        
Q.69        
Q.70        
Q.71     2  
Q.72        
Q.73        
Q.74        
Q.75        
Q.76        
Q.77        
Q.78        
Q.79        
Q.80        

MPSC Prelims 2019 CSAT Paper Analysis by Pradeep Gaware of HVDCEC


Expected MPSC Prelims Cut Off 2019

Category Sub - Category 2017 2018 Expected(2019)
General

Male

Female

Sports

189

168

146

247

233

207

 190/+/-/5

 170/+/-/5

 

OBC

Male

Female

Sports

189

174

153

247

247

NA

 190/+/-/5

 170/+/-/5

 

SC

Male

Female

Sports

173

160

121

228

219

176

165/+/-/5

 150/+/-/5

 

ST

Male

Female

Sports

148

128

NA

206

184

120

140/+/-/5

 125/+/-/5

 

 


 

About MPSC Answer Key

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MPSC Exam Pattern for State Service Exam

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