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  • GPSC Class 1 & 2 Prelims 2018 Answer Key & Cut Off


    We are the first to launch an accurate and comprehensive Gujarat Public Service Commission Prelims 2018 Answer Key. GPSC Class 1 and 2 Prelims GS Paper 1 and 2 Answer Key (all sets) with detailed solutions and sources will be updated on October 21, 2018!

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    GPSC Class 1 & 2 Answer Key – GS Paper 1 (All Sets)

    Q. NoSet ASet BSet CSet DSet E
    1
    2B
    3D
    4B
    5D
    6D
    7A
    8C
    9B
    10A
    11D
    12B
    13B
    14A
    15D
    16A
    17B
    18C
    19D
    20C
    21C
    22D
    23C
    24B
    25B
    26
    27C
    28B
    29
    30B
    31
    32
    33D
    34C
    35A
    36C
    37A
    38A
    39D
    40B
    41A
    42
    43B
    44D
    45B
    46C
    47C
    48C
    49B
    50C
    51A
    52B
    53C
    54D
    55C
    56B
    57A
    58A
    59B
    60A
    61B
    62
    63
    64C
    65A
    66C
    67D
    68A
    69A
    70A
    71B
    72
    73D
    74D
    75B
    76D
    77A
    78B
    79A
    80A
    81B
    82A
    83D
    84A
    85A
    86
    87B
    88D
    89C
    90A
    91D
    92C
    93D
    94D
    95A
    96A
    97
    98A
    99A
    100
    101C
    102
    103B
    104C
    105B
    106D
    107D
    108A
    109A
    110C
    111C
    112C
    113C
    114C
    115B
    116C
    117A
    118C
    119
    120A
    121C
    122B
    123B
    124D
    125C
    126A
    127B
    128A
    129A
    130C
    131D
    132C
    133B
    134C
    135A
    136
    137
    138
    139
    140
    141C
    142B
    143D
    144A
    145C
    146B
    147C
    148B
    149C
    150A
    151B
    152D
    153B
    154D
    155B
    156A
    157
    158A
    159D
    160A
    161C
    162
    163
    164
    165
    166D
    167D
    168A
    169D
    170A
    171C
    172B
    173B
    174D
    175D
    176C
    177D
    178C
    179B
    180D
    181B
    182C
    183A
    184B
    185B
    186B
    187C
    188B
    189
    190
    191
    192
    193
    194
    195
    196A
    197A
    198A
    199B
    200C

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    GPSC Class 1 & 2 Answer Key – GS Paper 1 – Score Calculator

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    The questions are in order as in Set (E)

    1. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?
      1. According to the Representation of People Act (1950), the relevant date for determining the age qualification of 18 years to enroll a first time voters is described as follows: “Qualifying Date means the first day of January of the year in which the electoral roll is prepared or revised.”
      2. The electoral rolls are prepared Lok Sabha constituency wise.
      3. A person disqualified due to ‘Corrupt Practices’ or offences relating to elections is not entitled to be registered int he electoral rolls.
      4. A young citizen of India completing 18 years on 9th November 2018 will be able to vote for the assembly elections to be held in December 2018.
      1. a) Only 1
      2. b) Only 2 and 3
      3. c) Only 1 and 3
      4. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    2. Which of the following statement(s) is (are correct?
      1. Sarkaria Commission recommended the establishment of Inter-State Council.
      2. Inter-State Council was notified and established by the Presidential order.
      3. Inter-State Council was the recommendation of the States Committee of Constituent Assembly.
      1. a) Only 1
      2. b) Only 1 and 2
      3. c) Only 2 and 3
      4. d) 1, 2 and 3
    3. Which statement of the following statement is incorrect?
      1. a) The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution is 552
      2. b) Out of 552 , 530 members represent the States and 20 members represent the Union Territories through elections
      3. c) The Chairman of all Parlimentary committees are nominated by the Speaker
      4. d) none of the above
    4. Which of the following statements(s) is (are) correct?
      1. The judgment in First Judges Case declared that the Primacy of the CJI’s recommendations to the President can be refused for cogent reasons.
      2. The judgment in Second Judges Case declared that “justiciability” and “primacy” required that the CJI be given the “primal” role in such appointments.
      3. The judgment in Three Judges Case ruled out the concept of “primacy” of the highest judiciary over the executive.
      1. a) Only 2
      2. b) Only 1 and 2
      3. c) Only 2 and 3
      4. d) Only 1 and 3
    5. Which of the following statements are correct ?
      1. Government of India Act (1919) provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission in India.
      2. The Public Service Commission was set up in India for the first time in 1926.
      3. With the existence of Indian Constitution in 1950 the Federal Public Service Commission came to be known as the Union Public Service Commission.
      4. Chairman and Members of the Federal Public Service Commission became Chairman and Members of the Union Public Service Commission by Article 378 of Indian Constitution.
      1. a) 1,2, 3 and 4
      2. b) Only 1 and 2
      3. c) Only 1, 2 and 3
      4. d) Only 2, 3 and 4
    6. Which of the following statements are correct?
      1. Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners have a tenure of 06 years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
      2. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India holds office for a term of 06 years or until attains age of 65 years whichever is earlier.
      3. The retirement age for the Chief Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) is 65 years and comes with a four year fixed term.
      4. A person who holds office as a member of a Public Service Commission shall, on the expiration of his term of office, be ineligible for reappointment to that office.
      1. a) Only 1 and 3
      2. b) Only 1 , 2 and 4
      3. c) Only 2, 3 and 4
      4. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    7. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding SAARC Charter?
      1. Its objective is to promote the welfare of the people of ASIA and to improve their quality of life.
      2. The Heads of State or Government shall meet once a year or more often as and when considered necessary by the Member States.
      3. Former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi Signed the SAARC Charter on behalf of Republic of India.
      4. Total 10 Articles are there in SAARC Charter.
      1. a) Only 1 and 3
      2. b) Only 2 and 3
      3. c) Only 1 and 4
      4. d) Only 1, 2 and 4
    8. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
      1. Erstwhile Ministry of Small Scale Industries and the Ministry of Agro and Rural Industries were merged to form the Ministry of Micro , Small and Medium Enterprises.
      2. In Service Sector , Micro Enterprise Category investment should not exceed INR 25 lakhs in equipments.
      3. In Manufacturing sector, Medium Enterprise Category investment should be more than INR 5 crores but should not exceed INR 10 crores in plant and machinery.
      1. a) Only 1 and 2
      2. b) Only 2 and 3
      3. c) Only 1 and 3
      4. d) Only 3
    9. A Prepared Community is A Safe Community is the slogan of ………
      1. a) Community Policing Unit of Gujarat
      2. b) National Disaster Management Authority
      3. c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
      4. d) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
    10. Sikshit Bharat – Swasth Bharat – Swachh Bharat – Swavalambi Bharat – Sampann Bharat is the Tagline of …..
      1. a) Unnat Bharat Abhiyaan
      2. b) Skill India Programme
      3. c) Ayushman Bharat
      4. d) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
    11. Which of the following fater-son duo was conferred with National Sahitya Academy year’s best book award for their distinctive contributions in the literary field?
      1. a) Harivallabh Bhayani-Utpal Bhayani
      2. b) Zhaverchand Meghani-Mahendra Meghani
      3. c) Ramanlal Joshi-Prabodh Joshi
      4. d) Mahadev Desai-Narayan Desai
    12. What is Hridaya Kunj?
      1. a) A place at Bardoli
      2. b) A place at Gandhi Ashram
      3. c) A place at Vadodara
      4. d) A place at Laxmivilas Palace
    13. Kutchhi language is a mix of which two languages?
      1. a) Kakri and Sindhi
      2. b) Sindhi and Gujarati
      3. c) Parsi and Kakri
      4. d) Kakri and Kathiyawadi
    14. The first theatre group of Gujarati, Parsee Natak Mandall was founded by …….
      1. a) Framjee Gustadjee Dalal
      2. b) Vaghiji Oza
      3. c) Ranchhodlal Dave
      4. d) K.M. Munshi
    15. Shaheed Bhagat Singh was a part of which of the following organization(s)?
      1. a) Naujavan Bharat Sabha
      2. b) Hindustan Socialist Republic Association
      3. c) Kirti Kisan Party
      4. d) All of the above
    16. Saptayatan style temple is located at ……. In Gujarat
      1. a) Dhrasanvel
      2. b) Chakrabhrut
      3. c) Kalvad
      4. d) Sarama
    17. Who among the following was awarded Sangeet Natak Akademy Award (New Delhi) for stage direction?
      1. a) Mohan Lalaji
      2. b) Mulchand Nayak
      3. c) Nayak Keshavlal
      4. d) Kasambhai Mir
    18. Swami Haridas is famous for his devotional compositions in _____________ style
      1. a) Thumari
      2. b) Charchari
      3. c) Dhrupad
      4. d) Tappa
    19. Rural Olympics was organized at ……. in India
      1. a) Kerala
      2. b) Lucknow
      3. c) Jaisalmer
      4. d) Kila Raypur
    20. Sarth Gujarati Jodanikosh is published by ……
      1. a) Gujarati Sahitya Parishad
      2. b) Gujarat University
      3. c) Gujarat Vidyapith
      4. d) Narmad Sahityasabha
    21. Match the following information by selecting the correct option regarding crafts of Gujarat.
      List 1 List 2
      1. Sadeli a. Bhujodi
      2. Ajrakh block printing b. Dhamadka
      3. Colourful shawls and blankets c. Poshina
      4. Terracotta horses d. Surat
      1. a) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
      2. b) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
      3. c) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
      4. d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
    22. Select the correct option from the choices given below regarding the examples of Torana architecture in Gujarat
      1. Sun Temple, Modhera
      2. Rudramahalaya, Siddhpur
      3. Ranchodji Temple, Valam
      1. a) Only 1
      2. b) Only 2 and 3
      3. c) Only 1 and 2
      4. d) 1,2 and 3
    23. Which of the following lyric(s) is(are) writtein by Jhaverchand Meghani?
      1. Supdu Savalakhnu..
      2. Aaso Maso Sharad Poonam ni Raat Jo ..
      3. Man Mor Bani Thangat Kare…
      1. a) Only 1
      2. b) Only 1 and 2
      3. c) Only 2 and 3
      4. d) 1,2 and 3
    24. The local artisans of ……. District has mastered the Kamangari Art (A form of Fresco)
      1. a) Surendranagar
      2. b) Kutch
      3. c) Morbi
      4. d) Panchmahal
    25. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct and indicates the existence of Bhddhism in Gujarat?
      1. Illustrated miniature manuscripts in Vadodara Museum Collection.
      2. Sculptures in the step well of Adalj
      3. Asokan Rock edict in Junagadh
      4. All of the above
      1. a) Only 1 and 4
      2. b) Only 1 and 3
      3. c) Only 1 and 2
      4. d) Only 3
    26. Ra-Lakha folklore refers to the king of ……..
      1. a) Kutch
      2. b) South Gujarat
      3. c) North Gujarat
      4. d) All of the above
    27. Prag-Mahal in Kutch is built in ….. Architectural style.
      1. a) Indo-Islamic
      2. b) Indian-ethnic
      3. c) Italian Gothic
      4. d) Mughal Style
    28. Hindola Raga miniature painting depicts which of the following God and Goddess?
      1. a) Shiva and Parvati
      2. b) Krishna and Radha
      3. c) Indra and Indrani
      4. d) Ganesha and Riddhi
    29. Aditya Ram, state musician of princely state….. Popularised the singing style of Chaturang a variant of Drupad.
      1. a) Vadodara
      2. b) Bhavnagar
      3. c) Jamnagar
      4. d) Balasinor
    30. Who is the artist of Banyan the Identity sculpture of Vadodara?
      1. a) Gulam Mohammad Sheikh
      2. b) Nagji Patel
      3. c) Bhupen Khakkhar
      4. d) K.G.Subramaniyam
    31. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
      1. Saptamatruka sculptures are popular in Gujarat.
      2. Saptamatruka worshipping started in Gujarat during Kshatrap time.
      3. Saptamatrukas are generally carved in single panels.
      4. Saptamatruka shrines are located at Pacchtar, Adodar and Balej in Gujarat.
      1. a) Only 1
      2. b) Ony 1 and 2
      3. c) Only 1, 2 and 3
      4. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    32. …… is a famous Jain monk for miniature painting of 14th century
      1. a) Kalakacharya
      2. b) Vikramacharya
      3. c) Virbhadracharya
      4. d) none of the above
    33. Choose the correct combination of information from the following pairs.
      1. a) Rathwa-Maharashtra
      2. b) Warli-Chhota Udaipur
      3. c) Garasiya – Madhya Pradesh
      4. d) none of the above
    34. Which of the following deity is depicted in Yogasana posture on Indus Seal?
      1. a) Tirthankara
      2. b) Buddha
      3. c) Pashupathi
      4. d) none of the above
    35. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect about Pichvai?
      1. Pichvai is the temple wall hanging used as a backdrop of the God’s idol.
      2. Pichvai is cloth painting
      3. Pichvai depicts scenes of Krishna’s life.
      4. Pichvai is the popular art form of southern India.
      1. a) Only 1 and 2
      2. b) Only 2
      3. c) Only 3 and 4
      4. d) Only 4
    36. Which among the following is the correct description of Nagara, Dravida and Vesara?
      1. a) The three main racial groups
      2. b) Three linguistic divsions
      3. c) Three main styles of Indian temple architecture
      4. d) Musical gharanas
    37. Kishangarh School of Rajasthan is famous for ….
      1. a) Painting
      2. b) Dance
      3. c) Sculpture
      4. d) Architecture
    38. Pandavani is a traditional dance |drama| theatre of which one of the following states?
      1. a) Chhattisgarh
      2. b) Bihar
      3. c) Jharkhand
      4. d) Telangana
    39. Dada Hari.ni Wav (Stepwell |Baoli|) is located at ……
      1. a) Bhavnagar
      2. b) Surat
      3. c) Junagadh
      4. d) Ahmedabad
    40. The walls of Nagara style tempels are known as ….
      1. a) Mandovar
      2. b) Stambh
      3. c) Toran
      4. d) Shrunkhala (Chain)
    41. The first female graduate of Gujarat is ……
      1. a) Shardagauri Mehta
      2. b) Vinodini Nilkanth
      3. c) Usha Mehata
      4. d) Lilawati Munshi
    42. The mansions (Havelis) of Gujarat are influenced by …… style of Architecture
      1. a) Chaulakya
      2. b) Maru-Gurjar
      3. c) Nagar
      4. d) Neo-Gothic
    43. Match the following :
      List 1 List 2
      a. Sankardev 1. Rasik School
      b. Chaitanyadev 2. Veershaiva School
      c. Basveshwar 3. Gaudiya School
      d. Nabhadas 4. Mahapurushiya School
      1. a) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
      2. b) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
      3. c) a-4, b-3, c-3, d-1
      4. d) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
    44. Famous Gujarati play Santu Rangili is inspired from an English play …..
      1. a) Antony and Cleopatra
      2. b) Electra
      3. c) The Chairs
      4. d) Pygmalion
    45. The lyricist of a song ‘Dhanvan Jeevan Mane chhe Koi Anubhavine Poochhi Jo Ke Kon Jeevi Jane Chhe…’ of Gujarati Theatre is ….
      1. a) Raskavi Raghunath Brahmbhatt
      2. b) Prabhulal Dwivedi
      3. c) Chandrakanth Shah
      4. d) Manasvi Prantijwala
    46. Choose the correct option by matching the following texts with their authors :
      Works Authors
      a. Kahe Koyal Shor Machaye 1. Saumya Joshi
      b. Aurangzeb 2. Harish Nagrecha
      c. Ek lalni rani 3. Chinu Modi
      d. Aathama taranu Aakash 4. Labhshankar Thaker
      1. a) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
      2. b) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
      3. c) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
      4. d) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
    47. ………. is situated at a confluence of rivers – Kapila, Saraswati and Hiranya
      1. a) Chanod
      2. b) Dwarka
      3. c) Bhalka
      4. d) Modhera
    48. Doobla people celebrate their festival …… by making big doll (Dhinglo)
      1. a) Akhatreej
      2. b) Shravani Poonam
      3. c) Divaso
      4. d) Holi
    49. …………… was Indian revolutionary who participated in the Indian independence movement until she was shot dead by the British Indian police in front of police station on 29th September 1942. She was affectionately known as ‘Gandhi buri’.
      1. a) Aruna Asaf Ali
      2. b) Matangini Hazra
      3. c) Mallu Swarajyam
      4. d) Durgabai Deshmukh
    50. Renowned film musician Jaikishan was born in ….. of Gujarat
      1. a) Dabhoi
      2. b) Palitana
      3. c) Vansda
      4. d) Vadnagar
    51. Hathee Singh Jain Temple is dedicated to ….. Tirthankara
      1. a) Dharmanath
      2. b) Neminath
      3. c) Mallinath
      4. d) Adinath
    52. Popularly sung at Navratri festival and weddings in Gujarat, Sanedo has originated from ….
      1. a) Rajkot
      2. b) Patan
      3. c) Dang
      4. d) Limkheda
    53. …….. is not a folk dance form of Gujarati Gabra
      1. a) Palli Jag
      2. b) Kahalya
      3. c) Dumhal
      4. d) Hudo
    54. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Hollisaka dance?
      1. The dance is very significant in the Harivansha Purana
      2. The dancers form a circle with their hands joined together to form a chain.
      3. A young man who acts as Lord Krishna stands in the middle of the ‘Gopis’.
      1. a) Only 1
      2. b) Only 2
      3. c) Only 1 and 2
      4. d) 1 , 2 and 3
    55. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Chitra-Vichitra Mela in Gujarat?
      1. It is held at the village of Gubhakhari.
      2. The name of the fair is derived from Chitravirya and Vichitraviraya, the sons of King Shantanu.
      3. Fair is held a day before Holi
      1. a) Only 1
      2. b) Only 2
      3. c) Only 1 and 2
      4. d) 1, 2 and 3
    56. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Tangaliya work?
      1. It is a famous wood carving and traditional craft of Gujarat.
      2. These are puppets vibrantly coloured and beautifully hand painted.
      3. It is usually worn as wraparound skirt by the women of hte Bharwad shepherd community.
      1. a) Only 1
      2. b) Only 3
      3. c) Only 1 and 2
      4. d) 1,2 and 3
    57. Jaykumari-Vijay, a play written by …… is considered as the first modern love story of Gujarati Literature.
      1. a) Ranchhodbhai Udayaram Dave
      2. b) C.C. Mehta
      3. c) Bapulal Naik
      4. d) Pragji Dosa
    58. Which of the following temple(s) is(are) located on Girnar Mountain?
      1. The Jain temple of Neminath
      2. The Jain temple of Mallinath
      3. The temple of Samprati Raja
      1. a) Only 1
      2. b) Only 2
      3. c) Only 2 and 3
      4. d) 1,2 and 3
    59. Natak Bhajavato – A book on theatre criticism is written by ……
      1. a) Dalpatram
      2. b) C.C. Mehta
      3. c) K.M. Munshi
      4. d) Janak Dave
    60. …………… has translated Uncle Vanya by Anton Chekhov into Gujarati as Vanya Mama.
      1. a) Hasmukh Baradi
      2. b) Anila Dalal
      3. c) Ranjana Harish
      4. d) Rita Kothari
    61. Whose court physician was Charak?
      1. a) Harsha Vardhana
      2. b) Kanishka
      3. c) Ashoka
      4. d) Chandra Gupta Maurya
    62. The Mandsaur Inscription and Indore copper plate of Skanda Gupta suggest that …..
      1. a) They were powerful guilds of various craftsmen
      2. b) They were economically quite well-off
      3. c) They migrated from place to place.
      4. d) All of the above
    63. Navanitakam of the Gupta period was a book on …..
      1. a) Astronomy
      2. b) Mathematics
      3. c) Medicine
      4. d) Astrology
    64. ……… is the philosophy of Vallabhacharya
      1. a) Advaitavada
      2. b) Vishishta Advaita
      3. c) Suddha Advaitavada
      4. d) Duaita Advaitavada
    65. ……… and Indian revolutionay couldn’t be imprisoned in the Kakori Robbery Case
      1. a) Chandra Shekhar Azad
      2. b) Roshan Singh
      3. c) Rajendra Lahiri
      4. d) Ashfaqullah Khan
    66. …….. A Ghadarite leader referred to the Mexican revolutionaries as the Mexican Ghadarities.
      1. a) Ajit Singh
      2. b) Barkatullah
      3. c) Lala Har Dayal
      4. d) Sohan Singh Bhakna
    67. What is Kalaripayattu accroding to India’s culture and tradition?
      1. a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of southern India.
      2. b) It is an ancient stye bronze and brasswork still found in southern part of Coromandel area.
      3. c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar
      4. d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of Southern India.
    68. Which of the fololowing statement(s) is(are) correct regarding the All India Trade Unio Congress (AITUC)?
      1. It was founded during the Non-Cooperation Movement
      2. Lala Lajpat Rai was its first elected president.
      3. Indian National Congress opposed its formation.
      1. a) Only 1 and 2
      2. b) Only 2 only
      3. c) Only 1 and 3
      4. d) 1, 2 and 3
    69. Match the following by selecting the correct option regarding museums in Gujarat.
      List 1 List 2
      1. Calico Museum a. Gautam Sarabhai
      2. Lalbhai Dalpatbhai Museum b. Agamprabhakar Muni Shri Punyavijayji Maharaj
      3. Kite Museum c. Bhanu Shah
      4. Sardar Patel Museum d. Moti Shahi Mahal
      1. a) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
      2. b) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
      3. c) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
      4. d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
    70. Match the locations of the libraries older than 100 years in Gujarat by selecting the correct option.
      List 1 List 2
      1. Raichand Deepchand Library a. Bharuch
      2. Desai Nanji and Sheth Zavershah Harjivan Library b. Porbhandar
      3.Stuart PUblic Library c. Godhra
      4. Lang Library d. Rajkot
      1. a) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
      2. b) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
      3. c) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
      4. d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
    71. Film Reva is adapted from a Gujarati novel titled …….
      1. a) Other
      2. b) Tatvamasi
      3. c) Jai Somnath
      4. d) Amruta
    72. Where among the following was the First ‘Praja Mandal’ was set up ?
      1. a) Baroda
      2. b) Bhavnagar
      3. c) Rajkot
      4. d) Wadhwan
    73. In 1858, Waghers attacked the Gaekwad army and British troops stationed in the Baroda state and forced them to retreat. The rebels established their control over Dwaraka and Bet. Who was declared the leader the leader of the rebels and King of Dwarka thereafter?
      1. a) Mukhi Garbaddas
      2. b) Thakore Jiyabhai
      3. c) Govind Rao
      4. d) Jodha Manek
    74. Police Action’ against …….. Princely state was titled as Operation Polo.
      1. a) Junagadh
      2. b) Travancore
      3. c) Kashmir
      4. d) Hyderabad
    75. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Mahalwari Settlement?
      1. It was a modified version of the Permanent Settlement.
      2. The Land revenue was fixed permanently in this system.
      1. a) Only 1
      2. b) Only 2
      3. c) Both 1 and 2
      4. d) Neither 1 nor 2
    76. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Theosophical Society ?
      1. It was founded in 1875 by Madam H.P. Balvatsky and a former English army officer, Colonel H.S. Olcott
      2. Its aim was to achieve a universal brotherhood of man.
      3. It foucussed at promtoing the study of ancient relgion and philosophy.
      4. It emphasized on occultism.
      1. a) Only 2, 3 and 4
      2. b) Only 1,3 and 4
      3. c) Only 1, 2 and 4
      4. d) 1,2, 3 and 4
    77. The Travancore Rebellion in 1809 was led by its Diwan …….
      1. a) Velu Thamp
      2. b) Kerala Varma
      3. c) Marudu Pandyan
      4. d) none of the above
    78. The Treaty of Amritsar (1809) was an agreement between Ranjit Singh and ……
      1. a) Wellesley
      2. b) Metcalfe
      3. c) Bentinck
      4. d) Mayo
    79. ………. a socio – religious organization, was co-founded by Mehtaji Durgaram Manchharam of Surat
      1. a) Manav Dharma Sabha
      2. b) Parmahansa Mandali
      3. c) Satya Mahima Dharma
      4. d) none of the above
    80. A non Brahmin movement emerged in south India under the leadership of E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker ‘Periyar’ is known as ……
      1. a) Self-Respect Movement
      2. b) Justice Movement
      3. c) Dravidian Movement
      4. d) Low – Caste Movement
    81. Who of the following Gupta dynasty issued the Ashvamedha coin?
      1. Samudragupta
      2. Chandragupta – II (Vikramaditya)
      3. Kumaragupta – 1
      4. Skandagupta
      1. a) Only 1 and 2
      2. b) Only 1 and 3
      3. c) Only 2 and 3
      4. d) Only 1 , 2 and 4
    82. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the second Karnatic War?
      1. The siege of Arcot took place in 1751.
      2. The war took place between British East India Company led by Robert Clive and Nawab of Arcot.
      3. The Nawab was supported by the French East India Company.
      4. Arcot is in Tamil Nadu
      1. a) 1,2, 3 and 4
      2. b) Only 1,2 and 3
      3. c) Only 3
      4. d) Only 1
    83. Which of the following statements regarding the Anglo – Mysore Wars are correct?
      1. Hydrerali won the first Anglo-Mysore War.
      2. Tipu defeated Baillie in the second Anglo-Mysore War.
      3. Tipu Sultan was defeated in the third Anglo – Mysore War.
      4. Tipu Sultan was killed in the fourth Anglo Mysore War.
      1. a) Only 1 and 4
      2. b) Only 1 , 2 and 4
      3. c) Only 1, 3 and 4
      4. d) 1,2, 3 and 4
    84. With regard to Mahagujarat Andolan which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
      1. The Chief Minister of the Bombay State was against the idea of having a separate state.
      2. A few students martyred in front of the Congress House near Lal Darwaza, Ahmedabad on August 8, 1956.
      3. Rivers like Mahi, Tapi and Narmada were not considered for major projects during the first fiver year Plan was the cause of Mahagujarat Andolan.
      4. Indulal Yagnik didn’t contest the election of 1957 out of his protest against Mahagujarat Andolan.
      1. a) Only 1 and 2
      2. b) Only 1 , 2 and 3
      3. c) Only 2
      4. d) 1,2, 3 and 4
    85. Who abolished the use of Persian as court language and ordered the use of Vernacular Languages ?
      1. a) William Bentinck
      2. b) Charles Cornwallis
      3. c) Warren Hastings
      4. d) none of the above
    86. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Walker’s Settlement?
      1. Walker’s Settlement was carried out between the Gaekwads of Vadodara and the Surashtra chiefs.
      2. The Gaekwads of Vadodara didn’t like it because they felt it as an interference of Britishers in Saurashtra.
      4. The Gaekwads of Vadodara welcomed it as it ensured a regular payment without any military expeditions.
      4. It brought Saurashtra under British control.
      1. a) Only 1 and 2
      2. b) Only 1 and 3
      3. c) Only 1 , 2 and 4
      4. d) Only 1, 3 and 4
    87. Where did Sultan Bahadur Shah permit the Portuguese to construct a fort?
      1. a) Bharuch
      2. b) Diu
      3. c) Surat
      4. d) Jafrabad
    88. Who founded the Gaekwads’ Maratha rule in Vododara?
      1. a) Damaji Rao-1
      2. b) Damaji Rao – II
      3. c) Sayaji Rao – I
      4. d) Pilaji Rao
    89. In which of the following princely states Shyamaji Krishna Varma had not served?
      1. a) Ratlam
      2. b) Udaipur
      3. c) Kutch
      4. d) Junagadh
    90. Arrange the following in chronological order:
      1. Establishment of Gujarat Vidyapeeth
      2. Home Rule Movement
      3. Shifting of Capital from Calcutta to Delhi
      4. Swadeshi Movement
      1. a) 4, 3, 2, 1
      2. b) 2, 1, 4, 3
      3. c) 3, 2, 1, 4
      4. d) 1, 4, 2, 3
    91. Which of the following statement(s) regarding the Harappan Civilisation is (are) correct?
      1. The Dholavira is the largest Harappan site in Gujarat.
      2. The evidence of ‘dual’ interment, the so-called ‘Sati’ burial, are found from Lothal.
      3. Lustrous Red Ware is a hallmark of mature phase of Sorathf Harappan.
      1. a) 1, 2 and 3
      2. b) Only 1
      3. c) Only 1 and 2
      4. d) Only 1 and 3
    92. Which of the following statements are correct?
      1. Alexander invaded north-western India in 326-327 BCE
      2. He was accompanied by scholars who wrote about his campaign.
      3. Megasthenes ‘Indica is a valuable historical source for Mauryan India.
      4. Megasthenes ‘Indica is survived only in quotations (fragments) by latter writers.
      1. a) 1,2, 3 and 4
      2. b) Only 1, 2 and 4
      3. c) Only 1, 3 and 4
      4. d) Only 1, 2 and 3
    93. The Annirruvar (five hundred swamis of Aihole) were the most celebrated …….. of southern India.
      1. a) Weaver’s group
      2. b) Group of soldiers
      3. c) Federation of feudal lords
      4. d) Merchant guild
    94. There are similarities as well as differences between the Buddhist and Jain religions . Choose (Identify) the differences between the two religions.
      1. a) Atheist
      2. b) Simple Lifestyle | Good conduct
      3. c) Work – Oriented
      4. d) Non-existence of Atma (Soul)
    95. Which of the following statements regarding Rajendra Chola – 1 are correct?
      1. He extended his sway up to the Ganga in the north and assumed ‘Gangaikonda Cholan’ title.
      2. He conquered areas which are now known as Malaysia, Indonesia, Thailand, Sri Lanka and Maldives.
      3. He built the famous ‘Brihadishvara temple’ dedicated to Lord Shiva.
      4. He founded a new city called ‘Gangaikonda Cholapuram.’
      1. a) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
      2. b) Only 1 and 2
      3. c) Only 1, 2 and 3
      4. d)
    96. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?
      1. The Gadhaiya coins were in circulation in the last centuries of first and initial centuries of second millennium CE.
      2. They were in circulation mainly in northern and western India.
      3. They were bronze coins coated with silver.
      1. a) Only 1 and 2
      2. b) Only 2 and 3
      3. c) 1, 2 and 3
      4. d) Only 2
    97. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?
      1. In 1934 Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya constituted a breakaway Congress Nationalist Party.
      2. Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviaya didn’t appreciate Gandhiji’s movement of Dalitoddhar.
      3. Gandhiji accepted the ‘MacDonald Award’
      4. With regard to Poona Pact (1932), the Congress Working Committee adopted ‘ neither rejection nor acceptance’ stand.
      1. a) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
      2. b) Only 1
      3. c) Only 1 and 2
      4. d) Only 1 and 3
    98. Which of the following statements regarding The Charter Act of India (1813) are correct?
      1. Made provisions for education in British India.
      2. Christian Missionaries were formally permitted to propagate Christanity
      3. ‘Governor General of Bengal ‘ was redesignated as ‘Governor General of India’.
      4. British East India Company became solely an administrative body.
      1. a) Only 1 and 2
      2. b) Only 1, 2 and 4
      3. c) Only 1, 2 and 3
      4. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    99. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct about Ramananda?
      1. He welcomed disciples from all walks of life – irrespective of their caste, creed, gender and religion.
      2. His verses are integral to Guru Granth Sahib.
      3. He was the contemporary of Akbar, the Mughal Emperor.
      4. Ramanujacharya who believed in ‘Social Equality’ was his Guru.
      1. a) Only 1 and 2
      2. b) Only 1 and 3
      3. c) Only 1 and 2 and 4
      4. d) Only 1
    100. Which inscription of the Kushana period informs about the system of ‘Dual Governorship’ in a province of Kushanas?
      1. a) The Panjatar inscription
      2. b) The Rabatak inscription (Afghanistan) of Kanishka
      3. c) The Bala Bodhisattva image inscription from Sarnath
      4. d) Mathura Pillar inscription
    101. Two workers M and N are engaged to do a work. M working alone takes 8 hours more to complete the work than if both worked together. If N worked alone, he would need 4.5 hours more to complete the task than they both work together. What time will they take to complete the work together?
      1. a) 3 hours
      2. b) 4 hours
      3. c) 6 hours
      4. d) none of the above
    102. Find the value of : 1/4 ( 1800 / (11* 24 -8 *3 )) +
      1. a) 1/4
      2. b)1
      3. c)5/8
      4. d) none of the above
    103. A new number is obtained by multiplying an integer by 40. The cube root of this new number is twice as much as the square root of that integer. Find the integer.
      1. a) 16
      2. b) 25
      3. c) 36
      4. d) 50
    104. Rajesh walks around a circular field at a rate of one round per hour while Sumit runs around it at the rate of six rounds per hour. If they start from the same point at 7:40 am , in same direction, they shall first meet each other at :
      1. a) 7:48 am
      2. b) 7:50 am
      3. c)7:52 am
      4. d) none of the above
    105. Two trains having equal lengths can cross a pole in 18 seconds and 12 seconds respectively. If they are running towards each other, how much time they will take to cross each other?
      1. a) 75/8 seconds
      2. b) 72/5 seconds
      3. c) 18 seconds
      4. d) none of the above
    106. What is the sixth term of the following series: 2,-1, 1/2,….
      1. a) 1/32
      2. b) -1/32
      3. c) 1/16
      4. d) none of the above
    107. ABC is a triangle where AN is perpendicular to CB and BM perpendicular to AC . The length of BC is 16,, that of AC is 24 and that of AN is 12. Find the length of BM.
      1. a) 8
      2. b) 12
      3. c) 18
      4. d) none of the above
    108. Sudha walked in the direction of sunrise for 200 metres. Then she turned to her left and walked 150 metres and stopped. How far is she now from starting point?
      1. a) 450 metres
      2. b) 550 metres
      3. c) 750 metres
      4. d) none of the above
    109. Spider : Insect :: Bat : ?
      1. a) Mammal
      2. b) Reptile
      3. c) Amphibian
      4. d) Bird
    110. Choose the figure which is different from other three
      1. a) A
      2. b) E
      3. c) Z
      4. d) N
    111. The volume of a rectangular box whose area of three adjacent faces are 42 cm2, 30 cm2, 35 cm2 is ………..
      1. a) 107 cm2
      2. b) 210 cm2
      3. c) 214 cm2
      4. d) none of the above
    112. If every side of the triangle is doubled, then percentage increase in the area of triangle is……….
      1. a) 200%
      2. b) 275%
      3. c) 300%
      4. d) 333%
    113. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
      1. Let ABCD be a parallelogram, then angle ABC and angle BCD are complementary angles.
      2. If ABCD is rhombus, then diagonals AC and BD are perpendicular bisectors of each other.
      1. a) Only 1
      2. b) Only 2
      3. c) Both 1 and 2
      4. d) Neither 1 nor 2
    114. The elctrical resistance of wire varies with its length and inversely with the square of its diameter. If a wire with a length of 200 cm and a diameter of 1 quarter of a centimetre has a resistance of 20 ohms , find the electrical resistance in a 500 cm wire with the same diameter.
      1. a) 25 ohms
      2. b) 40 ohms
      3. c) 50 ohms
      4. d) none of the above
    115. 100 workers can finish a work in 50 days . 100 workers started the work by working for 10 days. To finish the work as soon as possible 100 more workers are employed. Find the number of days required to finish the remaining work.
      1. a) 15 days
      2. b) 20 days
      3. c) 25 days
      4. d) 30 days
    116. Calendar for year 2009 will also serve for the year?
      1. a) 2011
      2. b) 2014
      3. c) 2015
      4. d) 2017
    117. The value of (6561)0.16 * (6561)0.09=?
      1. a)9
      2. b)27
      3. c)81
      4. d) none of the above
    118. Directions for (180 to 120)
      Choose the correct option showing the details of of given questions using following Venn Diagrams

      Police, Doctor, Woman

      1. a) Option A
      2. b) Option B
      3. c) Option C
      4. d) Option D
    119. Milky Way, Sun, Andromeda Galaxy
      1. a) Option A
      2. b) Option B
      3. c) Option C
      4. d) Option D
    120. Windows, Door, House
      1. a) Option A
      2. b) Option B
      3. c) Option C
      4. d) Option D
    121. If all the numbers from 601 to 800 are written, what is the total number of times the digit 7 appaers?
      1. a) 138
      2. b) 139
      3. c) 140
      4. d) 141
    122. The ratios of areas of circumcircle and incircle of equilateral triangle is?
      1. a) 2:1
      2. b) 1:3
      3. c)1:4
      4. d) none of the above
    123. Two linear equations : x+y=3 and -15-3y=3x has
      1. a) Unique solution
      2. b) No solution
      3. c) Two solutions
      4. d) Infinite Number of solutions
    124. In the figure below , angle p is 135 degree, angle q is 143 degree. If AB is parallel to CD, the value of angle x is?

      1. a)45 degree
      2. b) 68 degree
      3. c) 78 degree
      4. d) none of the above
    125. Directions for (125 to 129)
      Read the following information carefully and choose correct options for given questions:

      A,B,C,D,E,F,G are seven professionals who travel in three different vehicles- Maruti, Hyundai, Toyota. Among travellors in each vehicle , only one person is male. Out of seven professionals there are two engineers, two doctors and three teachers.

      1. C is a lady doctor and she doesn’t travel with pair of sisters A and F, who always travel together.
      2. B, a male engineer, travels with only G, a teacher in Maruti.
      3. D is a male doctor.
      4. Persons having same profession don’t travel in same vehicle.
      5. A is not an engineer and travels in Hyundai.

      What is F’s profession?

      1. a) Teacher
      2. b) Doctor
      3. c) Engineer
      4. d) none of the above
    126. In which vehicle C travels?
      1. a) Maruti
      2. b) Hyundai
      3. c) Toyota
      4. d) data inadequate
    127. Who are three teachers?
      1. a) FGE
      2. b)EGA
      3. c)BGF
      4. d) none of the above
    128. Which of the following is correct?
      1. a) E is a male teacher who travels in Toyota
      2. b) E is a lady teacher who travels in Toyota
      3. c) G is a male teacher who travels in Maruti
      4. d)A is a male doctor who travels in Hyundai.
    129. Which of the following is not correct?
      1. a)E and B are engineers.
      2. b) A and E are teachers.
      3. c) C and D are doctors.
      4. d) F and B are engineers.
    130. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
      1. square root of 51 is a rational number.
      2. pi is an irrational number.
      3. every irrational number is a real number.
      1. a) 1 and 3
      2. b) 2
      3. c) 2 and 3
      4. d) 1,2 and 3
    131. Rs. 7300 is divided among 4 doctors, 3 teachers and 5 lawyers in such a way that 3 lawyers get as much amount as 2 teachers and 3 doctors get as much as amount as 2 lawyers. How much amount would each teacher get?
      1. a) 500
      2. b) 700
      3. c) 730
      4. d) none of the above
    132. A student obtained following marks in an examination: English -55, Gujarati-73, Maths-58, Physics-64 and Chemistry- 62. What is the weighted arithmetic mean if weights 1,2,1,3,3 are alloted to above subjects respectively?
      1. a)61.5
      2. b) 62.6
      3. c) 63.7
      4. d) 64.9
    133. The probability that a leap year has 53 Sundays is
      1. a) 1/7
      2. b) 2/7
      3. c) 3/7
      4. d) 4/7
    134. If Rs 1000 be invested at an interest rate of 5% and the interest be added to principal every 10 years, then the number of years in which it will amount to Rs 2000 is
      1. a) 16 years
      2. b)
      3. c)
      4. d)
    135. If 2 + (3x/1) / (1 + (x/1-x)) = 3, then value of x is
      1. a) 3/2
      2. b) 3/4
      3. c)1/2
      4. d)1/4
    136. If the sum of two numbers is 48 and highest common factor(HCF) and Lowest Common Factor(LCM) are 2 and 286 respectively. Then the sum of the reciprocals of the number is …..
      1. a)1/143
      2. b)12/143
      3. c)24/143
      4. d) none of the above
    137. A person travels equal distances with speed of 1 km/hr , 2 km/hr, 4 km/hr and takes a total of 3 hours and 30 minutes . What is the total distance the person covers?
      1. a) 3 Kms
      2. b) 6 Kms
      3. c) 12 Kms
      4. d) none of the above
    138. If Rs. 481 is divided among three persons in the ratio of (1/4):(4/6):(5/8), then the least share is…….
      1. a) 48
      2. b) 52
      3. c) 78
      4. d) none of the above
    139. For a given circle the angle of sector is 60 degrees, if the area of this sector is 132/7 cm2, what is the rdaius of circle?
      1. a) 6 cm
      2. b) 7 cm
      3. c) 8 cm
      4. d) 9 cm
    140. If the perimeter of isoceles triangle is (6 + 3 sq.rt2) meter, then the area of the triangle is
      1. a) 6 metre sq
      2. b) 36 metre sq
      3. c) 48 metre sq
      4. d) None of the above
    141. The sum of present age of A, B and C is 180 years. 12 years ago, their ages were in the ratio 1:2:3. What is present age of C?/
      1. a) 66
      2. b) 72
      3. c) 84
      4. d) none of the above
    142. (Directions for 142 to 144)
      In the following table, total production figures of 5 types of cars A,B,C,D and E in 5 years are given. Answer the given questions using this data.

      In which year the total production of all cars has seen maximum percenatge change from its previous year?

      1. a) 1996
      2. b)1997
      3. c)1998
      4. d)1999
    143. What is median of cars producedduring year 1997?
      1. a) 14250
      2. b)14300
      3. c)17460
      4. d) none of the above
    144. What is the average production of car D during all years?
      1. a) 13531
      2. b) 13535
      3. c) 13541
      4. d) none of the above
    145. Which number will come in place of (?) in following series?
      2,5,4,18,6,39,10,(?)
      1. a) 65
      2. b) 82
      3. c)105
      4. d) 125
    146. In a certain language “CHENNAI” is coded as “EJGPPK” then how will “KOLKATA” be written?
      1. LPMLCUC
      2. b) MQNMCVC
      3. c) MNKJZSZ
      4. d) IMJIYRY
    147. ( Directions from 147 to 150)
      Each question has a problem and two statements 1 and 2. You have to decide, if the information given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. Indicate your answer as
      (A) if statement (1) is alone sufficient to answer the question.
      (B) if statement( 2) is alone sufficient to answer the question.
      (C) if statement (1) and (2) both together are needed to answer the question.
      (D) if statement (1) and (2) both together are not sufficient to answer the question.

      How is Brijesh related to Akash?
      1. Chetana, wife of Brijesh’s only brother Amit does not have any siblings
      2. Vikas’s wife Mitali is Chetana’s friend.

      1. (A) if statement (1) is alone sufficient to answer the question.
      2. (B) if statement( 2) is alone sufficient to answer the question.
      3. (C) if statement (1) and (2) both together are needed to answer the question.
      4. (D) if statement (1) and (2) both together are not sufficient to answer the question.
    148. What day is the fourteenth of given month?
      1. The last day of month is Wednesday.
      2.The third Saturday of the month was on seventeenth.
      1. (A) if statement (1) is alone sufficient to answer the question.
      2. (B) if statement( 2) is alone sufficient to answer the question.
      3. (C) if statement (1) and (2) both together are needed to answer the question.
      4. (D) if statement (1) and (2) both together are not sufficient to answer the question.
    149. How is Q related to P?
      1. M and Z are brothers of Q and P is son of Z.
      2. Q is father of T.
      1. (A) if statement (1) is alone sufficient to answer the question.
      2. (B) if statement( 2) is alone sufficient to answer the question.
      3. (C) if statement (1) and (2) both together are needed to answer the question.
      4. (D) if statement (1) and (2) both together are not sufficient to answer the question.
    150. How many marks Pooja scored?
      1. Pooja’s marks are exactly equal to the value of hypotenuse of a right angle traingle having values of two sides adjacent to right angle are 7 and 12 respectively.
      2. Pooja secured highest marks in class.
      1. (A) if statement (1) is alone sufficient to answer the question.
      2. (B) if statement( 2) is alone sufficient to answer the question.
      3. (C) if statement (1) and (2) both together are needed to answer the question.
      4. (D) if statement (1) and (2) both together are not sufficient to answer the question.
    151. Which of the following act is not considred as a part of the public policy formulation process?
      1. a) Identification of public problems
      2. b) Putting of public problems on policy agenda
      3. c) Formulation of policy proposal to deal the problems
      4. d) Evalution of the policy
    152. Which of the followind statements is correct?

      1. Digital governance has been legalized by the information technology act 2000 in india
      2. information technology act is a watershaed in conceptualizing administrative reforms in india
      3. Digital governance is an attack on bureaucratic red tabism

      1. a) Only 2 and 3
      2. b) only 2
      3. c) only 1 and 3
      4. d) 1,2 and 3
    153. Which of the following is (are) the attributes of human rights?

      1. Inalienability
      2. Divisibility
      3. Interdependence

      1. a) Only 2 and 3
      2. b) only 1 and 3
      3. c) only 2
      4. d) 1,2 and 3
    154. The allocation of seats in the council of the states form the different states of the uniun of indian has been provided in which of the following schedule of the cansitution?
      1. a) First Schedule
      2. b) Second Schedule
      3. c) Third Schedule
      4. d) Fourth Schedule
    155. Which scheme was launched for the socio economic empowerment of adolescent girls and young women(AGYW)?
      1. a) Kishort
      2. b) Tejaswini
      3. c) Saksham
      4. d) sashaktikaran
    156. joint sitting of both the houses of parliment is allowed during wich of the following?

      1. Ordinary bill
      2. Money bill
      3. Constitution amendment bill

      1. a) Only 1 and 3
      2. b) only 1
      3. c) Only 2 and 3
      4. d) Only 3
    157. The historic decision of the supreme court has accepted the ight to privacy, under the article 21 of indian constitution which guarantees right to left and personal liberty, as a fundamental right, which of the following areas will get affected because ofthis decision? 1. IPC section 377 2. Euthanasia
      1. a) Only 1
      2. b) Only 2
      3. c) Both 1 and 2
      4. d) Neither 1 nor 2
    158. Which sentence of the following sentences is correct with referance to the provisions of the goverment of india act(1858)?
      1. a) it ended the system of double government by abolishing the bord of control and court of director
      2. b) it also catered to the establishment of new legislative councils for bengal
      3. c) Both A and B
      4. d) None of the above
    159. Which sentence of the following sentances is correct about the satutory bodies?
      1. a) Statutory bodies are set up by statutes which parliament and state legislatures can pass
      2. b) Statutory bodies are set up by statutes of the constitution
      3. c) Statutory bodies aree set up by statutes which parllament and state legislatures can’t pass
      4. d) None of the above
    160. Which of the following statemetns are correct with referance to the article 371 of indian constitution?

      1. Article 371 provides the establishment of separate deveoopement boards for vidharbha, marthwada and rest of maharastra
      2.Article 371 provides the establishment of separate developement boards for kutch and rest of gujarat
      3. According to article 371 prime minister is authorized to assign governors of maharastra and gujarat would have special responsibilities for the above provisions.

      1. a) only 1 and 2
      2. b) 1, 2 and 3
      3. c) only 1 and 3
      4. d) only 2 and 3
    161. Recently constituted national SC/ST hub(NSSH) is functioning under the _______
      1. a) Ministry of social justice
      2. b) Ministry of skill developement and enterpreneurship
      3. c) ministtry of micro, small and medium Enterprises (MSEME)
      4. d) ministry of tribal affairs
    162. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

      1. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the chairman of drafting committe
      2. Jawaharlal nehru chaired the union constitution committee
      3. Sardar patel chaired provincial constitution committee
      4. Sardar patel chaired states committee (Committee for negotiating with states)

      1. a) Only 1 and 2
      2. b) Only 3
      3. c) Only 4
      4. d) only 2
    163. Which of the following statements with reference to the jurisf=diction of the supreme court are correct?
      1. The president can refer any matter of public interest to the supreme court of india to seek its opinion
      2. The Opinion given by the supreme court on a reference under advisory jurisdiction is not binding on the government
      3 The Supreme court under article 32 can issue writs for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of the citizens and for any other purpose
      1. a) only 1 and 3
      2. b) Only 1, 2 and 3
      3. c) Only 2 and 3
      4. d) only 2
    164. The indian porliament can make any law for whole or any part of india for implementing international treaties___________
      1. a) Which the consent of all states
      2. b) with the consent of majority of states
      3. c) with the consent of states concerned
      4. d) None of the above
    165. Which of the following statements with reference to the no confidence motion in parliament are correct?

      1. There is no mention of a no confidence motion in the constitution
      2. A period of six months must elapse between the introduction of the one no confidence motion and another
      3. At least one hundred members must support a motion of no confidence motion 4. A motion of no confidence motion can ve introduces in the lok sabha only

      1. a) 1,2,3 and 4
      2. b) Only 2 and 4
      3. c) Only 1,2, and 4
      4. d) only 1 and 4
    166. At the commencement of the constitution of india, every person shall be a citizen of india who has his domicile in the territory of india and _______
      1. a) Who was born in the territory of india
      2. b) Either of whose parents was born in the territory of india
      3. c) Who has been ordinarily residing in the territory of india for not less than five years immediately preceding such commencement
      4. d) all of the above
    167. Which of the following is correct under article 18 of the indian canstitution?
      1. a) No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the state
      2. b) no citizen of india shall accept any title from any foreign state
      3. c) No person who is not a citizen of india shall while he holds any office of profit or trust under the state accept without the consent of the president any title from any foreign state
      4. d) all of the above
    168. Which of the following statements is correct?

      1. The constitution amending power embodies in article 368 is subject to the doctrine of basic structure propounded by the supreme court in kesavanda bharati v. state of kerala
      2. For Constitution amendment prior permission of the president of india is required.
      3. The constitution amendment bill should initiate in lok sasbha

      1. a) only 1
      2. b) only 1 and 2
      3. c) only 3
      4. d) only 1 and 3
    169. In india if a religious community is accorded status of national minarity then which are the entitlements?

      1. They can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
      2. President automatically nominates a member in lok sabha
      3. They can driv benefit from PM’s 15 pont programme of 2006

      1. a) Only 1
      2. b) Only 2
      3. c) Only 1 and 2
      4. d) only 1 and 3
    170. Which of the following sentence is not correct with reference to the interstate council?

      1. It is established by the order of the president
      2. Its nature of dutied is defined by parliament
      3. its establishment is meant to serve the public interests

      1. a) Only 1 and 3
      2. b) only 2
      3. c) only 1 and 2
      4. d) only 1 and 3
    171. Union public service commission is not consulted in the matters reiated to the ____________
      1. a) Methods of recruitment to civil services
      2. b) Disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under gorvenment of india is civil capacity
      3. c) Disciplinary matters affectiong a person serving under gorvenment of a state in a civil capacity
      4. d) The Manner in which effect may be given to the provisions of article 335
    172. Which of the following sentence is not correct with reference to the national pension system in india?
      1. a) it replaced the defined benifit pension system
      2. b) It has been affered to all the citizens on voluntary basis
      3. c) it is regulated by the pension fund regulatory and development authority
      4. d) the pension fund regulatory and develapment authority act was encated in the year 2003
    173. Which of the following statements are coffect with reference to the cild labour (Prohibition and regulation) amenddment act (1986) amended recently?

      1. To ban child labour below 14 years
      2. To prohibit employment of adolescent lebour aged 14 – 16 years in all sectors
      3. To prohibit employment of adolescent labour aged 14-18 years in hazardous sector
      4. To regulate their employment in non hazaedous sections

      1. a) only 1,2 and 3
      2. b) Only 1, 3 and 4
      3. c) only 2, 3 and 4
      4. d) 1,2,3,and 4
    174. Which of the followting statemetns are correct?

      1. Lok sabha and rajya sabha both follow the method of proportional representation for electing members
      2. Members of rajya sabha are elected by the elected members of the state legisiative assembilies
      3. Maximum strengh of lok sabha is fixed at 552 4. The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 by the 61st constitutional amendment act (1988)

      1. a) Only 1 and 3
      2. b) Only 2 and 3
      3. c) Only 1, 3 and 4
      4. d) only 2, 3 and 4
    175. Which of the following statements are correct?

      1. The governor can reserve certain types of bills passed by the state legisiature for the consideration of the president
      2. During finacial emergency the president may direct the state government to send money bills and related bills for his consideration
      3. The governor also enjoys absolute and suspensice veto like president of india

      1. a) only 1
      2. b) only 2 and 3
      3. c) only 1 and 3
      4. d) 1,2 and 3
    176. Which of the following statements are correct with referance to the finacial bill?

      1. All money bills are financial bills but not all finacial bill are money bills
      2. Some types of finacial bills can be chaged or rejected by the rajya sabha
      3. some types of finacial bills can ve introduced in either of the houses lok sabha or rajya sabha
      4. All types of finacial bills can only be introduced in the lok sabha

      1. a) only 1 and 3
      2. b) only 2 and 4
      3. c) Only 1, 2, and 4
      4. d) only 1, 2 and 3
    177. Which of the following feature is included in the fundamental structure of the indian constitution?

      1. Judicial review
      2. Special leave to appeal by the supreme court
      3. Federal character
      4. Free and fair electrions

      1. a) only 1
      2. b) only 3 and 4
      3. c) only 1 and 4
      4. d) only 1, 3, and 4
    178. Which of the following statements are the provisions of the 44th constitutional amendment act (1978)?

      1. Restored the jurisdiction of the supereme court and high court in respect of judicial review and issues of writes
      2. replaced the term internal disturbance by armed rebellion with repect of national emergency
      3. The president can declared national emergency only on written recommendation of the cabinet
      4.Deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights and made it only a legal right

      1. a) Only 2 and 3
      2. b) only 1 and 2
      3. c) only 2, 3 and 4
      4. d) only 1, 2 and 3
    179. A new panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a panchayat before the expiration of its term shall continue___________
      1. a) For next 5 years fram the date of its first meeting and no longer
      2. b) for the remainder of the period for which the dissalved panchayat would have continued had it not been dissolved
      3. c) Till it enjoys the pleasure of the governor
      4. d) till state legislative assebly allows it to continue
    180. Which unit of the following units is not functioning under prime minister office(PMO)?
      1. a) Department of atomic energy
      2. b) department of space
      3. c) National secutiry council
      4. d) National capital region planning board
    181. Which of the following statement is correct?

      1. The total strength of a legislative council shall not exceed 40 members subject to minimum of one third strerigth of legislative assembly
      2.The legislative council can have maximum of one sixth nominated members. these members are nominated by governor on the recommendation of president.

      1. a) only 1
      2. b) only 2
      3. c) Both 1 and 2
      4. d) neither 1 nor 2
    182. In which of the following circumtanced courts aare debarred to interfare in electoral matters?

      1.Delimitation of constituencies
      2. Allotment of seats to the constituencies

      1. a) only 1
      2. b) only 2
      3. c) botth 1 and 2
      4. d) neither 1 nor 2
    183. Which of the following are not neccessarilly the consequences of the prociamation of presidents rule in a state?

      1. Dissolution of the state legislative assembly
      2. Removal of the council of ministers in the state
      3. Dissolution of the local bodies

      1. a) only 1 and 2
      2. b) only 1 and 3
      3. c) Only 2 and 3
      4. d) 1, 2, and 3
    184. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the status of official language in india?

      1. Hindi written in devangari script is the official language of the union
      2. The constitution specifies the official language of different states
      3. All proceedings in the supreme court and in every high court shall be conducted in english only until parliament provides otherwise

      1. a) only 1 and 2
      2. b) only 1 and 3
      3. c) Only 2 and 3
      4. d) 1, 2, and 3
    185. Though the council of ministers is collectives responsible to lok sabha the individual ministers are constitutionally responsible to:
      1. a) the prime minister
      2. b) the president
      3. c) the speaker
      4. d) None of the above
    186. What is the difference between vote on account and interim budget?

      1. the provision of a vote on account is used by a regular government while and interim budget is a provision used by a care taker government
      2. a vote on account only deals with the expenditure in government budget while an interim budget includes both expenditure and reciepts

      1. a) only 1
      2. b) only 2
      3. c) Both 1 and 2
      4. d) neither 1 nor 2
    187. Which of the following statements are true about GST council?

      1. The Quorum for its meeting is 50% of the total members.
      2. Central Government shall have weightage of 2/3rd of the votes and state government shall have 1/3rd weightage of the votes
      3. Council’s decisions are taken by the majority of not less than 3/4th the weightage votes of the members present and voting
      4. Only the finance minister of the state in the GST meetings

      1. a) Only 1 and 2
      2. b) only 2 and 3
      3. c) only 1,2, and 3
      4. d) 1,2,3 and 4
    188. Central information commission falls under __________ ministry of government of india
      1. a) Home affairs
      2. b) personnel public grievances and pensions
      3. c) ingormation and broadcasting
      4. d) Law
    189. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding personal immunity from legal action to the president Governors?
      1. a) the court cant compel the head of the state to perform any duty
      2. b) the head of the state is not answerable to any court for excercise of his duty
      3. c) the court is barred from issuing a notice to make the state answerable
      4. d) Personal immunity bars a Person to challenge the head of the state in the court of low
    190. Which of the following statements are correct with referance to the reservation of seats for representation of certain section of population in panchayat raj institution?

      1.Reservation of seats for scheduled castes as per the proportion of their population size in the state
      2. Reservation of seats for scheduled tribes is linked with their population size.
      3. Reservation of seats for backward classes is not neccarily linked with their population size

      1. a) 1,2 and 3
      2. b) only 1 and 2
      3. c) only 1 and 3
      4. d) only 2 and 3
    191. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the vice president of India?

      1. When vice president of India acts as president of india he doesn’t perform the duties of the chairperson of the council of states
      2. Vice president receivess salary and other allowances as ex officio chairman of the rajya sasbha not as vice president of india
      3. Whenever vice president acts as president of india he will not enjoy the powder immunities and privileges of president of India
      4. The constitution is silent on who performs the duties of vice president whrn vacancy occurs in the office Vice President

      1. a) only 1 and 3
      2. b) Only 2 and 4
      3. c) Only 1, 2, and 4
      4. d) 1,2,3 and 4
    192. Which of the following statements are correct about anti defection law?

      1.A nominated member of a house will be disqualified if he joins any political party within six monts of his/her nomination
      2.If and independent legislator joins a political party he would lose membership
      3.An independent can choose to support any political party but should not attach himself to any political party
      4. If a sole member of a political party in an assembly joins another political party he will be sisqualified

      1. a) 1,2,3 and 4
      2. b) only 2, 3 and 4
      3. c) only 3 and 4
      4. d) only 1 and 4
    193. There are three categories of advocates who are entitled to practice law before the supreme court of india. Which of the following category is not in the list?
      1. a) Constitution advocates
      2. b) Senior Advocates
      3. c) Advocates on record
      4. d) other advocates
    194. Which of the following statements are corrrect with reference to writs issued by the supreme court and high courts in india?

      1. The Write of habeas corpus can be issued against public authorites only
      2. The write of mandamus cannot be issued against private individual or body
      3. the writ of prohibition can be issed only against judicial and quasi judicial authorities
      4. The writ of certiorari is available against legislative bodies and private individuals.

      1. a) only 1 and 2
      2. b) only 1 and 4
      3. c) Only 2 and 3
      4. d) only 3 and 4
    195. Whichh of the following statements is incorrect with reference to the fundamental rights as enshrined in the indian constitution?

      1 All fundamental rights are available against the aribitrary action of the state only
      2. Some of them are legally enforceable while othe are not
      3. Parliament can curtail or repeal them but only through a constitutional amendment

      1. a) only 1
      2. b) only 2
      3. c) only 1 and 2
      4. d) 1, 2 and 3
    196. Which of the following statement is correct in the case when the prime minister of india belongs to the upper house of parliament?

      1. He will not be able to vote in his favour in the even of a no confidence motion
      2. He will not be able to speak on the budget in the lower house
      3. He can make statement only in the upper housse
      4. He has to become a member of the lower house within six months after being sworn in as the prime minister

      1. a) only 1
      2. b) only 1 and 2
      3. c) only 1, 2 and 3
      4. d) 1,2,3 and 4
    197. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the chairman of the rajya sabha?

      1. He cannot preside over a joint sitting of the two houses of parliament
      2. He is a member of the house but cannot vote in the first instance
      3.When a resolution for his removal is under consideration he can speak and take part in the proceeding but without right to vote

      1. a) Only 1 and 2
      2. b) only 2 and 3
      3. c) only 3
      4. d) only 1 and 3
    198. Which of the following statement regarding sessions of parlilament is icorrect?
      1. a) Adjourned sine die is done by the president while adjournment is done by the speaker
      2. b) Prorogation ends a session of the house while adjournment only ends a sitting
      3. c) Dissolution of the lok sabha happens either automatically or by the president
      4. d) Dissolution of the Rajya sabha cant take place because it is a permanent body
    199. Which of the following statement are correct with reference to constitution amendments?

      1. Private members cant introduce constitution amendment bill in parllament
      2. President cant refer back constitution amendment bill passed by parllament for reconsideration
      3. constitution amendmentbill requires special majority for its approval
      4. There cant be a joint session of parllament for passing a constitution amendment bill

      1. a) only 1 and 2
      2. b) only 2, 3 and 4
      3. c) Only 2 and 3
      4. d) only 1,2, and 3
    200. Which of the following statement is incorrect with reference to indian Parllament?
      1. a) The appropriation bill musts be passed by both the house of parllament before it can be enacted into law
      2. b) No money shall be withdrawn from the consolidated fung of india except under the appropriation made by the appropriation act
      3. c) Finance bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another bill act is required for marketing changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation
      4. d) None of the above

    GPSC Class 1 & 2 Answer Key – Paper 2 (All Sets)

    Q. NoSet ASet BSet CSet DSet E
    1C
    2A
    3
    4
    5
    6
    7
    8
    9B
    10C
    11
    12
    13
    14
    15
    16C
    17A
    18B
    19D
    20C
    21D
    22A
    23B
    24A
    25C
    26C
    27A
    28C
    29C
    30A
    31
    32
    33
    34
    35
    36A
    37B
    38B
    39A
    40C
    41
    42
    43
    44
    45
    46C
    47B
    48B
    49D
    50A
    51A
    52B
    53B
    54B
    55B
    56D
    57C
    58D
    59B
    60A
    61
    62
    63
    64
    65
    66
    67C
    68B
    69D
    70
    71
    72D
    73
    74
    75
    76B
    77C
    78A
    79D
    80B
    81D
    82C
    83C
    84B
    85D
    86B
    87B
    88C
    89B
    90
    91
    92
    93
    94
    95
    96
    97
    98
    99
    100
    101
    102
    103
    104
    105
    106B
    107A
    108A
    109B
    110C
    111A
    112B
    113A
    114D
    115D
    116D
    117B
    118A
    119C
    120
    121
    122
    123
    124
    125
    126
    127
    128
    129A
    130D
    131C
    132A
    133A
    134B
    135D
    136C
    137D
    138B
    139C
    140A
    141B
    142D
    143B
    144C
    145B
    146
    147
    148
    149
    150
    151
    152
    153
    154
    155
    156B
    157
    158B
    159
    160B
    161
    162
    163
    164
    165
    166D
    167A
    168A
    169D
    170B
    171C
    172D
    173C
    174C
    175D
    176
    177
    178
    179
    180
    181
    182
    183
    184
    185
    186
    187B
    188
    189B
    190
    191D
    192
    193
    194
    195
    196A
    197A
    198B
    199C
    200B

    GPSC Class 1 & 2 Answer Key – GS Paper 2 – Score Calculator

    The questions are in order as in Set (A)

    GPSC Paper 2 Question and Answers with the source will be updated on October 22, 2018

    GPSC Civil Services Prelims 2018 Expected cut off marks

    Cut off will be updated on October 22, 2018

    About GPSC Prelims Answer Key and Cut off 2018

    GPSC class 1 & 2Answer Key 2018 and GPSC Cut Off has been prepared by the team NeoStencil in collaboration with its partner Institutes. The GPSC Prelims Exam 2018 conducted on 21st October 2018 for 212 posts of Gujarat Civil Services Class 1 and 2 officers. NeoStencil is the first to launch the GPSC Pre Answer Key 2018 with explanations and sources as soon as the exam ceases, for the benefit of the candidates who would like to get a fair idea of how they performed and check their answers. GPSC class 1 & 2 Question Paper with Answer Sheet  2018 Answer Key will be helpful to assess your exam performance and check your eligibility for the next level.

    GPSC Question Paper with Answer not only includes answers for Paper 1 and Paper 2 but also the complete question paper for candidates along with detailed explanations and their sources. GPSC Civil Services Prelims Answer Key 2018 helps to determine GPSC Cut Off 2018 based on a large number of students and experienced teachers from Delhi’s top IAS coaching institutes. Register now on NeoStencil for access and download the GPSC Answer Key 2018 with detailed explanations and their sources.

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    1 responses on "GPSC Class 1 & 2 Prelims 2018 Answer Key & Cut Off"

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